B.Com 5th Sem Culture, Diversity and Society Question Paper Dec 2018

B.Com 5th Sem Culture, Diversity and Society Question Paper Dec 2018

Time : 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 70

Instructions to candidates:
1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If any of the above defects is found, get it replaced by a complete question booklet of the available series.

2. Write clearly the question booklet version code A,B,C,D or E in the appropriate space provided for the purpose, in the OMR answer sheet.

3. Enter the name of the subject, Reg. No., question booklet version code and affix signature on the OMR sheet. As the answer sheets are designed to suit the optical mark reader (O.M.R.) system, special care should be taken to fill those items accurately.

4. This question booklet contains 55 questions Part A contains 40 questions of One mar each. Part B contains 15 questions of 2 marks each. All questions must be attempted. Each question contains four answers, among them one correct answer should be selected and shade the corresponding option in the OMR sheet.

5. All the answers should be marked only on the OMR sheet provided and only with a black or blue ink ball point pen. If more than one circle is shaded/ wrongly shaded/half shaded for a given question no marks will be awarded.

6. Questions are in both english and kannada. If any confusion arises in the Kannada version, please refer to the english version of the questions.

7. Immediately after the final bell indicating the closure of the examination, stop making any further markings in the OMR answer sheet. Be seated till the OMR answer sheet is collected. After handing over the OMR answer sheet of the invigilator you may leave the examination hall.

PART – A

Note: Answer all questions: Each question carries one mark. (1 x 40 = 40)

1. How many states are there in India?
a. 22
b. 29
c. 31
d. 30
Answer:
b. 29

2. On ________ India has been declared as a “Republic”.
a. 15th August 1947
b. 26th November 1950
c. 26th January 1950
d. 26th January 1952
Answer:
c. 26th January 1950

3. The holy book of Sikhism is ________.
a. Guru Granth Sahib
b. Kuran
c. Bible
d. Bhagavadgita
Answer:
a. Guru Granth Sahib

4. The followers of Zoroastrianism are known as ________.
a. Jains
b. Sikhs
c. Parsis
d. Sindhis
Answer:
c. Parsis

5. ________ is the one of the important functions of family.
a. immorality
b. Socialisation
c. Selfishness
d. Alienation
Answer:
b. Socialisation

6. Aboriginals or primitive people are also known as ________.
a. Scheduled Castes
b. Upper Castes
c. Scheduled Tribes
d. City People
Answer:
c. Scheduled Tribes

7. The Chairman of State Backward Classes Commission is appointed by ________.
a. Governor
b. Chief Minister
c. Chief Justice
d. Chief Secretary
Answer:
d. Chief Secretary

8. National Minorities Rights Day is celebrated on ________.
a. 18th November
b. 18th December
c. 18th September
d. 18th October
Answer:
b. 18th December

9. According to 2011 census, the percentage of rural population in India is around ________.
a. 85%
b. 80%
c. 60%
d. 68%
Answer:
d. 68%

10. Who wrote the book – Maatangi Deevatige – the first Dalit woman’s autobiography in Kannada?
a. Anupama Niranjan
b. H.S. Anupama
c. Dr. Samata Deshmane
d. Kavita Lankesh
Answer:
c. Dr. Samata Deshmane

11. Number of districts involved in Hyderabad – Kanatanataka development issue is ________.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
Answer:
d. 6

12. W.G. Sumner coined the world Ethnocentrism in his book ________.
a. Pathways
b. Orientalism
c. Das Capital
d. Folkways
Answer:
c. Das Capital

13. Practice of child labour is ________.
a. Prohibited officially
b. Practiced officially
c. Motivated officially
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Prohibited officially

14. The Juvenile Justice (care and protection) of Children Act was enacted in ________.
a.1980
b. 2000
c. 1982
d. 1960
Answer:
b. 2000

15. Bonded labour is also known as ________.
a. Free labour
b. Child labour
c. Debt bondage
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Debt bondage

16. Racial diversity is characterized by ________.
a. Linguistic differences
b. Social-economic differences
c. Biological differences
d. Religious differences
Answer:
c. Biological differences

17. The world “India” is derived from the name of the river ________.
a. Kaveri
b. Indus/Sindhu
c. Brahmaputra
d. Ganga
Answer:
b. Indus/Sindhu

18. ________ is the harvest festival of Punjab.
a. Pongal
b. Sankranthi
c. Dasara
d. Baisakhi/Vaisakhi
Answer:
d. Baisakhi/Vaisakhi

19. Number of Union Territories in India are:
a. 4
b.7
c. 9
d. a
Answer:
b.7

20. ________ is the National Game of India.
a. Cricket
b. Football
c. Kabaddi
d. Hockey
Answer:
d. Hockey

21. A family with husband, wife and unmarried children is called ________ family.
a. Joint
b. Extended
c. Nuclear
d. Matriarchal
Answer:
c. Nuclear

22. Family ¡s a ________ group.
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Primary

23. Caste is a ________ group.
a. Open
b. Free
c. Out
d. Closed
Answer:
a. Open

24. Caste Is determined by ________.
a. Brith
b. Occupation
c. Education
d. Membership
Answer:
b. Occupation

25. The Chairman of National Commission for Backward Classes is appointed by ________.
a. Governor
b. Vice President
c. Prime Minister
d. President
Answer:

26. Expansion of LPG is ________.
a. Liberalisation, Pauperisatiofl, Globalisation
b. Llberalisati, Privatisation, Globalisation
c. Liberalism, Patriotism, Government
d. Liberalisation, Population, Globalisation
Answer:
b. Llberalisati, Privatisation, Globalisation

27. George Ritzer gave the concept of ________.
a. McDonaldisation
b. Globalisation
c. Liberalisation
d. Privatisation
Answer:
a. McDonaldisation

28. Mono-culturaliSm is the practice of preserving a ________.
a. City culture
b. Village culture
c. National culture
d. Tribal culture
Answer:
b. Village culture

29. An example of electronic media is ________.
a. Book
b. Magazine
c. Newspaper
d.TV
Answer:
d.TV

30. Mass media shrunks the world into ________.
a. Global village
b. Town
c. Metropolitan city
d. Cosmopolitan city
Answer:
c. Metropolitan city

31. The great leader who fought for women’s voting rights in India is ________.
a. Dr. BR. Ambedkar
b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. Vallabhai Patel
d. Jawharlal Nehru
Answer:
a. Dr. BR. Ambedkar

32. Hindu Marriage Act was enacted in ________.
a. 1950
b. 1940
c. 1930
d. 1955
Answer:
d. 1955

33. Fundamentalism is basically a ________ belief.
a. Dogmatic
b. Scientific
c. Rational
d. Economic
Answer:
a. Dogmatic

34. Terrorism is rooted in ________.
a. Secularism
b. Nationalism
c. Fundamentalism
d. Education system
Answer:
b. Nationalism

35. ________ committee was appointed to study the regional disparity in Karnataka.
a. Mudaliar
b. D.M. Nanjundappa
c. Prof. Bisilaiah
d. Chinnapa Reddy
Answer:
b. D.M. Nanjundappa

36. Geographically India is the ________ largest country in the world.
a. 2nd
b. 4th
c. 7th
d. 10th
Answer:
c. 7th

37. ________ languages are officially recognised in India.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 22
d. 18
Answer:
c. 22

38. Indian society is characterised by ________.
a. Unity in diversity
b. Mono culture
c. Dual citizenship
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Unity in diversity

39. The founder of the Buddhism is ________.
a. Gautham Buddha
b. Mahaveera
c. Mahayana
d. Hinayana
Answer:
a. Gautham Buddha

40. The song “Saare Jahaanse Achcha… ” is written by ________.
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Muhammad Ali Jinnah
c. Noor Jahaan
d. Muhammad Iqbal
Answer:
d. Muhammad Iqbal

Part – B

Note: Answer all questions. Each question carries two marks. (2 x 15 = 30)

41. How many Rajya Sabha seats are there in Karnataka?
a. 12
b. 13
c. 14
d. 15
Answer:
a. 12

42. Scheduled castes, scheduled tribes, backward classes and religious minorities are ________ sections.
a. Big
b. Weaker
c. Strong
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

43. ________ is one of the forms of social stratification.
a. Village
b. Tribe
c. City
d. Class
Answer:
d. Class

44. Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits the discrimination on the grounds of religion, caste, race, sex and birth place, etc.?
a. 14
b. 15
c. 17
d. 16
Answer:
b. 15

45. Match the following:

A B
1. Facebook i. Reality show
2. Deccan Herald ii. Electronic media
3. K.B.C. ii. Folk media
4. F.M. Radio iv. Social media
v. Print Media

Codes:
a. 1-iv, 2-v, 3-i, 4-ii
b. 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-v, 4-ii
c. 1-i, 2-iv, 3-v, 4-ii
d. 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-v, 4-i
Answer:
a. 1-iv, 2-v, 3-i, 4-ii

46. McDonaldisation is a concept related to ________.
a. Nationalism
b. Education system
c. Political system
d. Fast food restaurants
Answer:
d. Fast food restaurants

47. Total land area of India is ________.
a. 1.3 crore sq. kms
b. 32.87 lakh sq. kms
c. 2 core sq. kms.
d. none of the above .state.
Answer:
b. 32.87 lakh sq. kms

48. Thar desert is located in ________.
a. Karnataka
b. Tamil Nadu
c. Rajasthan
d. Bihar
Answer:
c. Rajasthan

49. ________ means marriage within the caste.
a. Exagamy
b. Endogamy
c. Monogamy
d. Plygamy
Answer:
b. Endogamy

50. Urban population in India is ________.
a. Increasing
b. Decreasing
c. Static
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Increasing

51. According to 2011 census, sex ratio in India is ________.
a. 846/1000 males
b. 915/1000 males
c. 999/1000 males
d. 940/1000 males
Answer:
d. 940/1000 males

52. India covers about ________ of the world’s total land area.
a. 25%
b. 2.4%
c. 10%
d. 15%
Answer:
b. 2.4%

53. Cultural globalisation is also known as ________.
a. cultural relativity
b. cultural ethnocentrism
c. cultural invasion
d. tribal culture
Answer:
c. cultural invasion

54. Indian culture is a mixture of immigrant Aryan culture, the native ________ indigenous culture and also invading civilizations.
a. Aryan
b. Dravidian
c. Mongolian
d. Australoid
Answer:
b. Dravidian

55. The highest Mountain Peak in the world is ________.
a. Mount Kailash
b. Kanchanjunga
c. K-2
d. Mount Everest
Answer:
d. Mount Everest

B.Com 5th Sem Culture, Diversity and Society Question Paper Dec 2019

B.Com 5th Sem Culture, Diversity and Society Question Paper Dec 2019

Time : 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 70

Instructions to candidates:
1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If any of the above defects are found, get them replaced by a complete question booklet of the available series.

2. Write clearly the question booklet version code A, B, C, D, or E in the appropriate space provided for the purpose, in the OMR answer sheet.

3. Enter the name of the subject, Reg. No., question booklet version code and affix signature on the OMR sheet. As the answer sheets are designed to suit the optical mark reader (O.M.R.) system, special care should be taken to fill those items accurately.

4. This question booklet contains 55 questions Part A contains 40 questions of One mar each. Part B contains 15 questions of 2 marks each. All questions must be attempted. Each question contains four answers, among them one correct answer should be selected and shade the corresponding option in the OMR sheet.

5. All the answers should be marked only on the OMR sheet provided and only with a black or blue ink bail point pen. If more than one circle is shaded/ wrongly shaded/half-shaded for a given question no marks will be awarded.

6. Questions are in both english and kannada. If any confusion arises in the Kannada version, please refer to the english version of the questions.

7. Immediately after the final bell indicating the closure of the examination, stop making any further markings in the OMR answer sheet. Be seated till the OMR answer sheet is collected. After handing over the OMR answer sheet of the invigilator you may leave the examination hall.

PART – A

Note: Answer all questions: Each question carries one mark. (1 x 40 = 40)

1. Geographically India is the __________ largest country in the world.
a. 7th
b. 10th
c. 4th
d. 2nd
Answer:
a. 7th

2. The term “Globalization” was introduced by:
a. Theodore Levitt
b. George Ritzer
c. Daniel Learner
d. Louis Dumont
Answer:
a. Theodore Levitt

3. _________ is not a characteristic of tribes.
a. Common teriltory
b. Common religion
c. Endogamous Group
d. Exogamous group
Answer:
d. Exogamous group

4. The Namboodarl Joint family is called as __________.
a. 1110m
b. Tarawad
c. Khasl
d. Garo
Answer:
a. 1110m

5. Who gave the concept ‘Ethnocentrism’?
a. Radcliff Brown
b. William G Summer
c. Maciver
d. Durkheim
Answer:
b. William G Summer

6. The southernmost tip of India is__________.
a. Kanyakumarl
b. Saint. Mary’s
c. Indira point
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Kanyakumarl

7. Kannada language belongs to language group.
a. Arayn
b. Dravidlan
c. Indo-European
d. SIno-Tibetian
Answer:
b. Dravidlan

8. Who gave the concept of”Sanskritization”?
a. G.S. Ghurye
b. A.R. Desal
c. MN. Srinivas
d. Iravathi Karve
Answer:
c. MN. Srinivas

9. Mc. Donaldization is the principie related to:
a. Vegetables market
b. Fruit market
c. Flower market
d. Fastfood Restaurants
Answer:
d. Fastfood Restaurants

10. An example of Electronic media:
a. Newspaper
b. Radio
c. Magazine
d. Book
Answer:
b. Radio

11. Smruthis means ___________.
a. Veda
b. Song
c. Memory
d. Yagna
Answer:
a. Veda

12. Two sects of Jainism:
a. Pretestants and Roman Catholics
b. Hinayana and Mahayana
c. Shiya and Sunni
d. Swethambara and Digambara
Answer:
d. Swethambara and Digambara

13. Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers belong to _________.
a. Western ghats river
b. Deccan river
c. Island river
d. Himalayan River
Answer:
d. Himalayan River

14. The untouchability (offences) Act was passed In ___________ year.
a. 1972
b. 1985
c. 1947
d. 1955
Answer:
d. 1955

15. The process of people moving from rural areas to urban areas within a country Is known as __________.
a. Internal Migration
b. Emigration
c. Immigration
d. International Migration
Answer:
a. Internal Migration

16. What ¡s the new name given for Hyderabad-Karnataka region?
a. Madras Kamataka
b. Mumbai Kamataka
c. Kalyana Karnataka
d. Madhya Kamataka
Answer:
c. Kalyana Karnataka

17. __________ ¡s the highest peak in the world.
a. K2
b. Mount Everest
c. Gourishankar
d. Dhaulaglrl
Answer:
b. Mount Everest

18. Who Is the Chairperson of first Backward Classes Commission of Independent India?
a. Kakasaheb Kalelkar
b. Mandai
c. Havanur
d. Miller
Answer:
a. Kakasaheb Kalelkar

19. Which ¡s the largest desert in India?
a. Sahara
b. Gobi
c. Thar
d. Non of the above
Answer:
c. Thar

20. __________ denotes antagonism between different religions.
a. Nationalism
b. Communalism
c. Regionalism
d. Socialism
Answer:
b. Communalism

21. ‘Mono-culturalism” Is the practice of preserving:
a. Double culture
b. Sub-culture
c. Multi culture
d. Single culture
Answer:
d. Single culture

22. The fourth pillar of Democracy:
a. Judiciary
b. Executive
c. Mass Media
d. Legislative
Answer:
c. Mass Media

23. Communalism Is a __________ problem.
a. Soda-religious
b. Economic
c. Educational
d. Philosophical
Answer:
a. Soda-religious

24. Soliga tribe is found in __________ State.
a. Orissa
b. Maharashtra
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Karnataka
Answer:
d. Karnataka

25. __________ is an ascribed status.
a. Doctor
b. Teacher
c. Lawyer
d. Caste
Answer:
d. Caste

26. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution is related to
a. Abolition of the practice of Untouchability
b. Equality before law
c. Prevention of sexual discrimination
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Abolition of the practice of Untouchability

27. _________ is the harvest festival of Karnataka.
a. Baisakhi
b. Sankranti
c. Bhogi
d. Pongal
Answer:
b. Sankranti

28. _________ is the original name of Buddha.
a. Aiddhartha
b. Sambuddha
c. Mahaveera
d. Shankaracharya
Answer:
a. Aiddhartha

29. Dharma, Artha, Kama, Moksha are called as _________.
a. Samskaras
b. Ashrama system
c. Gurukula system
d. Purusharthas
Answer:
d. Purusharthas

30. The world family is derived from the Latin word _________.
a. famili
b. famulae
c. famulus
d. famulie
Answer:
c. famulus

31. Summer season in India is during _________ months.
a. December to February
b. March to May
c. June to September
d. October to November
Answer:
c. June to September

32. Holy book of Christianity is _________.
a. Bhagvatgeeta
b. Quran
c. Bible
d. Guru Granth Saheb
Answer:
c. Bible

33. International women’s day is celebrated on _________.
a. April 14th
b. June 5th
c. June 5th
d. November 14th
Answer:
c. June 5th

34. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act was enacted in the year _________.
a. 1996
b. 1978
c. 1986
d. 1988
Answer:
c. 1986

35. Plural society means _________.
a. Co-existence of multiple social groups
b. Existence of single religious groups
c. Existence of single ethnic groups
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Co-existence of multiple social groups

36. Advaitha philosophy was propounded by _________.
a. Adishankara
b. Ramanuja
c. Madhwacharya
d. Basavanna
Answer:
a. Adishankara

37. Caste is determined by _________.
a. Hobby
b. Region
c. Birth
d. Wealth
Answer:
c. Birth

38. NRHM means:
a. National Regional Health Mission
b. National Rural Health Mission
c. National Rural Highway Management
d. National Rozgar Housing Mission
Answer:
b. National Rural Health Mission

39. Highest average rainfall in Karnataka is recorded at:
a. Shimoga
b. Agumbe
c. Cheerapunji
d. Chikkamagaluru
Answer:
b. Agumbe

40. Article 24 of the Indian Constitution relates to:
a. Migrant Labour
b. Child Labour
c. Bonded Labour
d. Contract Labour
Answer:
b. Child Labour

Part – B

Note: Answer all questions. Each question carries two marks. (2 x 15 = 30)

41. Me Mohanline separates India from _________.
a. Pakistan
b. Nepal
c. Srilanka
d. China
Answer:
d. China

42. Match the following:

A B
(1) Christianity (i) Bhagvatgeeta
(2) Sikhisim (ii) Quran
(3) Hinduism (iii) Bible
(4) Islam (iv) Guru Granth Saheb

Codes:
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(b) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Answer:
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

43. _________ is known as the ‘Watch dog’ of the Democracy.
a. Legislative
b. Judiciary
c. Executive
d. Mass Media
Answer:
d. Mass Media

44. J.R.Y. means:
a. Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
b. Jawharlal Rule Yard
c. Jewel Research York
d. Jodhgar Research York
Answer:
a. Jawahar Rozgar Yojana

45. Sri Narayan Guru and Iyyankali are the two famous social reformers from _________ state.
a. Karnataka
b. Kerala
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
b. Kerala

46. The two dominant castes of Karnataka are:
a. Brahmin and Vokkaliga
b. Vokkaliga and Lingayat
c. SC and ST
d. Brahmin and Ungayat
Answer:
b. Vokkaliga and Lingayat

47. Extreme Ethnocentrism may lead to _________.
a. Caste
b. Xenophobia
c. Euphobia
d. Hydrohobia
Answer:
b. Xenophobia

48. Which is not a characteristics of Joint family?
a. More than 2 generations
b. Common Kitchen
c. Joint property holding
d. Individual freedom
Answer:
d. Individual freedom

49. Match the following:

A B
(1) Bharathanatyam (i) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Kathak (ii) Kerala
(3) Mohiniyattam (iii) Karnataka
(4) Yakshagana (iv) Tamil Nadu

Codes:
a. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
b. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
c. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
d. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer:
c. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

50. Who wrote the book Maatangi Deevatige – the first Dalit Women’s autobiography in Kannada literature?
a. Arundhati Roy
b. B.T. Lalithanaik
c. Madhavi Desai
d. Pro. Samata B. Deshmane
Answer:
d. Pro. Samata B. Deshmane

51. _________ is not a monotheistic religion.
a. Islam
b. Christianity
c. Judaism
d. Hinduism
Answer:
c. Judaism

52. Urbanization refers to the growth of _________.
a. Cities
b. Villages
c. Tribes
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Cities

53. Match the following:

A B
(1) Electronic Media (i) Wall writing
(2) Print Media (ii) Twitter
(3) Social Media (iii) Internet
(4) Outdoor Media (iv) Newspaper

Codes:
a. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
b. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
c. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
d. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer:
c. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Contemporary Challenges Before Indian Society MCQ Questions Part 2

Contemporary Challenges Before Indian Society MCQ Questions Part 2

Question 1.
Globalisation opportunities for paid work for women has denied them __________.
[a] Good health
[b] Good education
[c] Permanent job
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Permanent job

Question 2.
Fair globalisation would mean __________.
[a] Fair opportunities for all
[b] Fair benefits for all
[c] More supports to small producers
[d] All of the above
Answer:
[d] All of the above

Q. Globalisation can make globalisation more fair by __________.
[a] Increasing competition
[b] Increasing employment
[c] Implementing the labour laws
[d] Imposing trade barriers
Answer:
[c] Implementing the labour laws

Question 3.
The first phase of globalisation started around 1870 and ended with __________.
[a] The world war I
[b] The world war II
[c] The establishment of GATT
[d] In 1913 when GDP was high
Answer:
[a] The world war I

Question 4.
Which is the right sequence of stages of Internationalisation?
[a] Domestic, Transnational, Global, International, Multinational
[b] Domestic, International, Multinational, Global, Transnational
[c] Domestic, Multinational, International, Transnational, Global
[d] Domestic, International, Transnational, Multinational, Global
Answer:
[b] Domestic, International, Multinational, Global, Transnational

Question 5.
__________ is application of knowledge which redefines the boundaries of global business.
[a] Cultural values
[b] Society
[c] Technology
[d] Economy
Answer:
[c] Technology

Question 6.
Capitalistic, communistic and mixed are types of __________.
[a] Economic system
[b] Social system
[c] Cultural attitudes
[d] Political system
Answer:
[a] Economic system

Question 7.
Which one out of the following is notan Indian MNC?
[a] Asian Paints
[b] Uniliver
[c] Piramal
[d] Wipro
Answer:
[b] Uniliver

Question 8.
Globalisation refers to __________.
[a] Lower incomes worldwide
[b] Lessjforeign trade and investment
[c] A more integrated and independent world
[d] Global warmjnq and their effects
Answer:
[c] A more integrated and independent world

Question 9.
Key controllable factors in global marketing are __________.
[a] Government policy and legislation
[b] Social and technical changes
[c] Both a and b
[d] Marketing activities and plans
Answer:
[d] Marketing activities and plans

Question 10.
Which among the following is an example for Indian MNC?
[a] Hindusthan Uniliver
[b] Videocon
[c] Cargill
[d] Tesco
Answer:
[b] Videocon

Question 11.
_________ Corporation produces in home country or in a single country and focuses on marketing these products globally or vice a versa.
[a] Global
[b] International
[c] Transnational
[d] None of these
Answer:
[a] Global

Question 12.
Which company produces, markets, invests and operates across the world __________.
[a] Global
[b] International
[c] Transnational
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Transnational

Question 13.
Which sector has not benefited by the policy of globalisation?
[a] Agricultural sector
[b] Manufacturing sector
[c] Service sector
[d] None of these
Answer:
[a] Agricultural sector

Question 14.
Cheaper imports, in adequate investment in infrastructure leads to __________.
[a] Slowdown in agricultural sector
[b] Slowdown in industrial sector
[c] Replace the demand for domestic production
[d] All the above
Answer:
[d] All the above

Question 15.
Globalisation results in __________.
[a] Lesser competition among producers
[b] No competition among producers
[c] Greater completion among producers
[d] None of the above
Answer:
[c] Greater completion among producers

Question 16.
Globalisation has led to improvement in __________.
[a] Choice to consumers
[b] Quality of goods and services
[c] Foreign investment
[d] All the above
Answer:
[c] Foreign investment

Question 17.
Which of the following factors has not facilitated globalisation?
[a] Technology
[b] Liberalisation for trade
[c] WTO
[d] Nationalisation of banks
Answer:
[d] Nationalisation of banks

Question 18.
One of the major results of globalisation in India has been in the growth of __________.
[a] Outsourcing of MNCs
[b] Transportation services
[c] Telecommunication services
[d] None of the above
Answer:
[a] Outsourcing of MNCs

Question 19.
Globalisation so far has been more in favour of __________.
[a] Developed countries
[b] Developing countries
[c] Poor countries
[d] None of the above
Answer:
[a] Developed countries

Question 20.
MNCs have succeeded in entering global markets through __________.
[a] WTO
[b] UNO
[c] UNESCO
[d] ILO
Answer:
[a] WTO

Question 21.
FDI attracted by globalisation in India belongs to the __________.
[a] World bank
[b] Multinationals
[c] Foreign governments
[d] None of the above
Answer:
[b] Multinationals

Question 22.
When economic activities in a country are influenced by economic activities in other countries it is called as __________.
[a] Foreign trade
[b] Competition
[c] Globalisation
[d] All the above
Answer:
[c] Globalisation

Question 23.
A company that operates in more than one country is called as __________.
[a] Partnership
[b] Corporation
[c] Foreign company
[d] Multinational
Answer:
[d] Multinational

Question 24.
Which of the following contributes to globalisation?
[a] Internal trade
[b] External trade
[c] Large scale trade
[d] Small scale trade
Answer:
[b] External trade

Question 25.
Globalisation results in __________.
[a] Inflow of labour from abroad
[b] Inflow of labour from abroad
[c] Inflow of capital from abroad
[d] All the above
Answer:
[a] Inflow of labour from abroad

Question 26.
Globalisation leads to __________.
[a] More competition
[b] Less competition
[c] Monopoly
[d] None of the above
Answer:
[a] More competition

Question 27.
Globalisation is called fair globalisation when it benefits __________.
[a] Labour
[b] Investors
[c] Consumers
[d] All the above
Answer:
[d] All the above

Question 28.
The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 is an example of __________.
[a] Regulative Labour Legislation
[b] Protective Labour Legislation
[c] Social Security Legislation
[d] Welfare Legislation
Answer:
[b] Protective Labour Legislation

Question 29.
Which of the following is not the objective of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Bill proposed by the second National Commission on Labour?
[a] To ensure that no child would be deprived of a future being deprived of education
[b] To ensure children not to work in situations where they are exploited
[c] To prohibit child labour in all employments irrespective of their coverage under the existing act
[d] To tackle the problem of child labour by ensuring universal education
Answer:
[c] To prohibit child labour in all employments irrespective of their coverage under the existing act

Question 30.
Under the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, a child is one who has not completed his
[a] 18 years
[b]16 years
[c] 15 years
[d] 14 years
Answer:
[d] 14 years

Question 31.
Which of the following legislations applies to unorganised sector workers in India?
[a] Minimum Wages Act
[b] Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
[c] Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970
[d] All of the above
Answer:
[d] All of the above

Question 32.
As per the act, Day means period of 24 hours beginning at __________
[a] 8 AM
[b] Noon
[c] 4PM
[d] Midnight
Answer:
[d] Midnight

Question 33.
As per the act, week means period of 7 days beginning at midnight on __________.
[a] Sunday
[b] Monday
[c] Saturday
[d] Thursday
Answer:
[c] Saturday

Question 34.
Anybody who contravenes the provision of Section 3- prohibition of employment of children in certain occupations and processes shall be punished with minimum __________ which may extend up to __________ of imprisonment.
[a] lmonth: lyear
[b] 3 months: 1 year
[c] 6 months: 3 years
[d] 6 months: 5 years
Answer:
[b] 3 months: 1 year

Question 35.
The day specified in notice as a weekly holiday for a child shall not be altered by the occupier more than once in __________.
[a] 1 week
[b] 1 month
[c] 2 months
[d] 3months
Answer:
[d] 3months

Question 36.
The Notice to inspector as mentioned in Section 9 of the act, shall be sent within how many days of employment of a child and commencement of this act with respect to that particular establishment?
[a] 10
[b] 15
[c] 20
[d] 30
Answer:
[d] 30

Question 37.
To whom shall the case be initially referred by the inspector in case of any question regarding age of child permitted to work in an establishment?
[a] Tribunal
[b] Police Commissioner
[c] Chief Inspector
[d] Prescribed medical authority
Answer:
[d] Prescribed medical authority

Question 38.
Which section of the act shall not apply to any process carried out by the occupier with the aid of his family?
[a] Section 7,8 and 10
[b] Section 7,8 and 9
[c] Section 7,8 and 11
[d] Section 7,9 and 10
Answer:
[b] Section 7,8 and 9

Question 39.
Which is the year for the declaration of the Rights of Child?
[a] 1967
[b] 1962
[c] 1960
[d] 1959
Answer:
[d] 1959

Question 40.
Which section-of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 defines the term Child?
[a] Section 1
[b] Section 2(i)
[c] Section 2
(ii) [d] Section 2 (iii)
Answer:
[c] Section 2

Question 41.
When cultural norms and values are transmitted from generation to generation the process is called as __________.
[a] Cultural reproduction
[b] Acculturation
[c] Cultural diffusion
[d] Cultural stimulation
Answer:
[a] Cultural reproduction

Question 42.
When a person believes that his culture is superior to other cultures it is called as __________.
[a] Ethnicity
[b] Ethnocentrism
[c] Cultural snobbery
[d] Cultural relativism
Answer:
[b] Ethnocentrism

Question 43.
Which one of the following concepts implies that each social status involves not a single associated role but an array of roles?
[a] Multiple roles
[b] Status sequence
[c] Role set
[d] Status set
Answer:
[c] Role set

Question 44.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
[a] Social structure and social organisation are two concepts denoting the same phenomenon
[b] Both social structure and social organisation have no empirical referents
[c] An organisation functions to accomplish a goal while a structure does not
[d] Social structure has no relation with function
Answer:
[a] Social structure and social organisation are two concepts denoting the same phenomenon

Question 45.
The violation of section 3 of the Child Labour( Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986 shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term not less than __________ but which may be extended to one year or with a fine which shall not be less than ten thousand rupees but Which may be extended to __________ or with both.
[a] lrnonth; Rs. 10,000
[b] 3 months;Rs.20,000
[c] 6 months; Rs. 25,000
[d] g months; Rs.50,000
Answer:
[b] 3 months;Rs.20,000

Question 46.
__________ has the sole responsibility for enactment of labour laws which applicable to all over India.
[a] State government
[b] Central government
[c] Industries
[d] ILO
Answer:
[b] Central government

Question 47.
Generally contract workers are paid __________ permanent employees.
[a] Less than
[b] More than
[c] At par with
[d] None of the above
Answer:
[a] Less than

Question 48.
The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970 prohibits use of contract labour for core functions in a company. The purpose was to ensure interest of __________.
[a] Factories
[b] Contract employees
[c] Permanent employees
[d] Trade union
Answer:
[c] Permanent employees

Question 49.
The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970, is to __________ contract employees.
[a] Increase
[b] Decrease
[c] Promote
[d] Develop
Answer:
[b] Decrease

Question 50.
There was no restrictions on the child labours till the date __________ is been implanted.
[a] Independence
[b] Labour Law
[c] Commercial Law
[d] Trade Union Act
Answer:
[b] Labour Law

Question 51.
Problems faced by the children’s in the industries do not include __________.
[a] More working time
[b] Lack of leave facility
[c] Less wages
[d] Hazardous work
Answer:
[b] Lack of leave facility

Question 52.
The abolition of child labour was introduced first time through __________.
[a] Factories Act 1947
[b] Factories Act 1883
[c] Factories Act 1881
[d] Factories Act 1956
Answer:
[b] Factories Act 1883

Question 53.
The restriction of women in night employment was introduced through __________.
[a] Factories Act 1947
[b] Women protection Act 1883
[c] Factories Act 1883
[d] Factories Act 1881
Answer:
[c] Factories Act 1883

Question 54.
Which was the first newspaper published in India?
[a] Bengal Gazette
[b] Samachar Darpan
[c] Mumbai Samachar
[d] The Times of India
Answer:
[a] Bengal Gazette

Question 55.
Which was the first vernacular paper in India?
[a] Bengal Gazette
[b] Samachar Darpan
[c] Mumbai Samachar
[d] The Times of India
Answer:
[b] Samachar Darpan

Question 56.
Which was the oldest daily in India?
[a] Bengal Gazette
[b] Samachar Darpan
[c] Mumbai Samachar
[d] The Times of India
Answer:
[c] Mumbai Samachar

Question 57.
Who started commercial TV broadcasting for hand-held mobile devices in May, 2008?
[a] Doordarshan
[b] Prasar Bharati
[c] Subbalakshmi
[d] Jayaialitha
Answer:
[b] Prasar Bharati

Question 58.
Which is the largest selling English daily in India according to IRS 2012?
[a] The Hindu
[b] The Times of India
[c] Hindustan Times
[d] The Economic Times
Answer:
[b] The Times of India

Question 59.
Which is the oldest English daily in India?
[a] The Hindustan Times
[b] The Statesman
[c] The Times of India
[d] The Indian Express
Answer:
[c] The Times of India

Question 60
Which was the oldest daily in India?
[a] Mumbai Samachar
[b] Bengal Gazette
[c] The Times of India
[d] Samachar Darpan
Answer:
[a] Mumbai Samachar

Question 61.
A large size headline across the entire page is called __________.
[a] Deck
[b] Banner
[c] Lead
[d] Dow
Answer:
[b] Banner

Question 62.
The first Editor of Dawn was.
[a] Desmond Young
[b] Altaf Hussain
[c] Smith mack
[d] Pothan Joseph
Answer:
[d] Pothan Joseph

Question 63.
A sheet containing facts and detailed information on any issue is known as __________.
[a] Backgrounder
[b] Review
[c] Write up
[d] Summary
Answer:
[a] Backgrounder

Question 64.
The key Narrator of a newscast or program is called __________.
[a] Announcer
[b] Anchor
[c] Editor
[d] Author
Answer:
[b] Anchor

Question 65.
Mohammedan Social Reformer was the English Name of
[a] Muhazzab
[b] Makhzari
[c] Tahzeeb ul Akhlaq
[d] Ahmed Ali
Answer:
[c] Tahzeeb ul Akhlaq

Question 66.
Daily Dawn Started in __________.
[a] 1940
[b] 1942
[c] 1944
[d] 1992
Answer:
[b] 1942

Question 67.
CPNE is the representative body of __________.
[a] Newspaper owners
[b] Working journalists
[c] Freelancers
[d] Editors
Answer:
[d] Editors

Question 68.
Television made its advent in Pakistan in __________.
[a] 1964
[b] 1958
[c] 1970
[d] 1998
Answer:
[a] 1964

Question 69.
Leader is the name of __________.
[a] Leading story on the front page
[b] Main Feature
[c] Opening Editorial
[d] Closure
Answer:
[c] Opening Editorial

Question 70.
Continuation of a story on another page is called __________.
[a] Carried
[b] lump
[c] Bouncer
[d] Release
Answer:
[b] lump

Question 71.
A story appearing with the name of the writer is called __________.
[a] Print line
[b] Front line
[c] By line
[d] Credit line
Answer:
[c] By line

Question 72.
What is meant by editorial note?
[a] Additional editorial
[b] Small editorial
[c] None of these
[d] Editor’s notes
Answer:
[d] Editor’s notes

Question 73.
The news which appears in the papers two or three days before an important event is called:
[a] Curtain Raiser
[b] Background
[c] Follow up
[d] None of these
Answer:
[a] Curtain Raiser

Question 74.
Which official is called the pilot of the newspaper?
[a] The news editor
[b] The reporter
[c] The editor
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] The editor

Question 75.
A cardinal sin for a journalist is to __________.
[a] Misspell a name
[b] Disagree with an editor or news director
[c] Publish a story that angers local officials
[d] Reveal how decisions are made about what is newsworthy
Answer:
[a] Misspell a name

Question 76.
Which of the following is NOT true about journalism today?
[a] Stories created for one medium are likely to be found in other media
[b] The techniques for researching and writing stories continue to be important
[c] Few people nowadays rely on journalists for information about important events
[d] The tenets of good journalism-critical thinking, clear writing and organized presentation-remain the same
Answer:
[c] Few people nowadays rely on journalists for information about important events

Question 77.
The value of the Associated Press Styiebook is that it __________.
[a] Guides reporters in assuring that all stories with have a uniform political slant
[b] Gives reporters a template for all news stories they may write
[c] Tells reporters what constitutes fine writing and what does not
[d] Promotes consistency in news writing and reduces errors
Answer:
[d] Promotes consistency in news writing and reduces errors

Question 78.
The dateline on a news story indicates the __________.
[a] Time when the story occurred
[b] Place where the events described in the story took place
[c] Date when the story was written
[d] Date when the, story should be published
Answer:
[b] Place where the events described in the story took place

Question 79.
The purpose of a slug line on a news story is to __________.
[a] Enable reporters to write the headlines for their stories
[b] Hit a news organization’s enemies with an insult
[c] Help editors identify and track news stories as they are prepared for publication
[d] Identify the political orientation of a news story
Answer:
[c] Help editors identify and track news stories as they are prepared for publication

Question 80.
Citizen Journalism is the practice of __________.
[a] Preparing stories that will help citizens vote in elections
[b] Publishing only those stories that are of interest to politically active citizens
[c] Collaborating with non-profit organizations to prepare news stories
[d] Inviting readers and viewers to participate in the creation of news content
Answer:
[d] Inviting readers and viewers to participate in the creation of news content

Question 81.
In journalism, a “mojo” is a __________.
[a] Journalist who has an unusual degree of sex appeal
[b] A source who provides a journalist with a good-luck charm
[c] A source who has the ability to bounce back from adversity
[d] Journalist who carries her tools-computers, cameras, recorders-with her at all times
Answer:
[d] Journalist who carries her tools-computers, cameras, recorders-with her at all times

Question 82.
The most popular Internet sites for Americans seeking news are those operated by __________.
[a] Traditional news organizations, such as newspapers and TV stations
[b] Bloggers who have a clear political ideology
[c] Bloggers who repackage news from traditional news organizations
[d] Web sites operated by companies not affiliated with traditional news media
Answer:
[a] Traditional news organizations, such as newspapers and TV stations

Question 83.
Media General’s creation of a single center for its newspaper, television and Internet news organizations in Tampa, Fla., is an example of __________.
[a] Conglomerate journalism
[b] Convergence
[c] Vertical integration
[d] Horizontal integration
Answer:
[b] Convergence

Question 84.
In journalism, “convergence” means __________.
[a] Different news media all cover the same story in the same way
[b] Sharing facilities, newsgathering resources, personnel or content
[c] The content of one newspaper is indistinguishable from that of any other newspaper
[d] News organizations are all striving to put the same ideological slant on news stories
Answer:
[b] Sharing facilities, newsgathering resources, personnel or content

Question 85.
The proportion of people who get their news from mobile devices was recently estimated at __________.
[a] About one-quarter
[b] About three-quarters
[c] About two-thirds
[d] About half
Answer:
[d] About half

Question 86.
Traditional news media-newspapers, magazines and broadcast news operations-provide what percentage of the factual information on the Internet?
[a] 70 percent
[b] 55 percent
[c] 85 percent
[d] 90 percent
Answer:
[c] 85 percent

Question 87.
Modification in clothing reflect __________.
[a] Grace and beauty
[b] Idea of modesty
[c] Ideas of shame
[d] Change in societies
Answer:
[d] Change in societies

Question 88.
Before 18th century dresses were not regulated by __________.
[a] Social hierarchy
[b] Regional codes
[c] Democratic values
[d] Gender
Answer:
[c] Democratic values

Question 89.
Which of the following are pull factors for majority of rural migrants to urban areas?
[a] Better opportunities
[b] Availability of regular work
[c] Education
[d] All of the above
Answer:
[d] All of the above

Question 90.
Consider the following statements:
1. Migration has been an integral part and a very important factor in redistributing population over time and space.
2. India has witnessed the waves of migrants coming to the country from central and west Asia and also from South East Asia.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
[a] Only 1
[b] Only 2
[c] Both 1 and 2
[d] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
[c] Both 1 and 2

Question 91.
Which of the following are the factors that led people in India to migrate from rural to urban areas?
[a] Poverty
[b] Education
[c] Lack of basic infrastructural facilities
[d] All the above
Answer:
[d] All the above

Question 92.
Consider the following statements:
1. Reason for migration of males and females are different.
2. Work and employment have remained the main cause for female migration. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
[a] Only 1
[b] Only 2
[c] Both 1 and 2
[d] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
[a] Only 1

Question 93.
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Migration leads to the redistribution of the population within a country.
2. Migrants act as agents of social change
3. Migration leads to segregation of people from diverse cultures.
[a] Only 1 and 2
[b] Only 1 and 3
[c] Only 2 and 3
[d] 1, 2 and 3
Answer:
[a] Only 1 and 2

Contemporary Challenges Before Indian Society MCQ Questions Part 1

Contemporary Challenges Before Indian Society MCQ Questions Part 1

Question 1.
Communalism means __________.
[a] Fights between two communities
[b] Violence
[c] Protect interests of own community
[d] Attacking foreign communities
Answer:
[c] Protect interests of own community

Question 2.
Separate movements were based on __________.
[a] Hatred towards rulers
[b] Religion or language
[c] Opportunism
[d] To divide nation
Answer:
[b] Religion or language

Question 3.
Britishers used ‘Divide and Rule’ strategy using
[a] Power
[b] Laws
[c] Personalities
[d] Religion
Answer:
[d] Religion

Question 4.
Communal riots happened more between __________.
[a] Christians and Muslims
[b] Muslims and Dalit’s
[c] Hindus and Christians
[d] Hindus and Muslims
Answer:
[d] Hindus and Muslims

Question 5.
Communal disturbances usually take place during __________.
[a] Sports
[b] Drama
[c] Festivals
[d] Mela
Answer:
[c] Festivals

Question 6.
In Pakistan the Hindu religion people are in __________.
[a] Majority tion
[b] Equal to Muslim popula- tion
[c] Minority
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Minority

Question 7.
Religious fundamentalism was first started in __________.
[a] UK
[b] USA
[c] India
[d] China
Answer:
[c] India

Question 8.
Universally which religion has highest number of followers __________.
[a] Muslims
[b] Hindus
[c] Buddists
[d] Christians
Answer:
[d] Christians

Question 9.
The full form of RSS is __________.
[a] Rajya Sabha System
[b] Rational Socialist System
[c] Rash riya Swayam Sevak
[d] Rashtra Shakti Sangh
Answer:
[c] Rash riya Swayam Sevak

Question 10.
Which religions people are in majority in state of Jammu and Kashmir?
[a] Muslims
[b] Hindus
[c] Buddists
[d] Sikh
Answer:
[a] Muslims

Question 11.
What does secularism means?
[a] Hinduism
[b] Nationalism
[c] Not attached to any religion
[d] Attached to one religion
Answer:
[c] Not attached to any religion

Question 12.
Religion refers to distinct identity of __________.
[a] zone
[b] nation
[c] district
[d] language, ethnic culture
Answer:
[d] language, ethnic culture

Question 13.
There is growth of regionalism and regional parties due to __________.
[a] Perceived feeling of neglect by centre
[b] Separatist attitude
[c] Forcing decisions
[d] Family control
Answer:
[a] Perceived feeling of neglect by centre

Question 14.
Which is among the following is not a regional party?
[a] AIADMK
[b] BJP
[c] TMC
[d] Akali Dal
Answer:
[b] BJP

Question 15.
Which of the following states are ruled by regional party?
[a] MP and Jharkhand
[b] Maharashtra and Gujarat
[c] Tamil Nadu and West Bejigal
[d] Karnataka and Harayana
Answer:
[c] Tamil Nadu and West Bejigal

Question 16.
Movement of Khlistan was related to __________.
[a] J & K
[b] Punjab
[c] MP
[d] Harayana
Answer:
[d] Harayana

Question 17.
Telangana state is formed carved out of __________.
[a] Maharashtra
[b] Tamil Nadu
[c] Andra Pradesh
[d] Kerala
Answer:
[c] Andra Pradesh

Question 18.
MP was divided to form another state named __________.
[a] Uttarkhand
[b] Chattisgad
[c] Jharkhand
[d] Purvanchal
Answer:
[a] Uttarkhand

Question 19.
Bihar was divided to form another state called __________.
[a] Sikkim
[b] Chattisgad
[c] Jharkhand
[d] Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
[d] Arunachal Pradesh

Question 20.
There is an agitation in part of Assam to form another state called __________.
[a] Tripura
[b] Manipur
[c] Gurkhaland
[d] Bodoland
Answer:
[c] Gurkhaland

Question 21.
Ethnocentrism is primarily to look and from __________.
[a] Other ethnics perspective
[b] Foreigners Perspective
[c] Own ethnic culture perspective
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Own ethnic culture perspective

Question 22.
Euroculturism is related to __________.
[a] Unique culture
[b] USA culture
[c] United culture
[d] European culture
Answer:
[d] European culture

Question 23.
Nationalism normally refers to __________.
[a] Activism
[b] Agitationalism
[c] Antagonism
[d] Patrostisam
Answer:
[d] Patrostisam

Question 24.
Sino-Indian agreement refers to __________.
[a] War time agreement
[b] Peace time agreement
[c] China- India agreement
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] China- India agreement

Question 25.
Monoculture means __________.
[a] Monotonous culture
[b] One culture
[c] National culture
[d] None of these.
Answer:
[b] One culture

Question 26.
Globalisation refers to __________.
[a] Export to foreign countries
[b] Entire world as one
[c] Group
[d] None of the above
Answer:
[b] Entire world as one

Question 28.
India formally entered globalisation process during the Prime Minestership of __________.
[a] Rajiv Gandhi
[b] Chandrashekar
[c] Deve Gowda
[d] PV Narasimha Rao
Answer:
[d] PV Narasimha Rao

Question 29.
Who was Finance Minister keenly worked for globalisation of Indian government in July 1991?
[a] P Chidambaram
[b] Dr.Manmohan Singh
[c] Yeshwant Sinha
[d] VP Singh
Answer:
[b] Dr.Manmohan Singh

Question 30.
India initiated globalisation plan due to pressure from __________
[a] Congress
[b] BJP
[c] Opposition parties
[d] IMF and World Bank
Answer:
[d] IMF and World Bank

Question 31.
After globalisation central government plays the role of __________.
[a] Regulator
[b] Controller
[c] Facilitator
[d] None of the above
Answer:
[c] Facilitator

Question 32.
After globalisation various subsidies to agriculture, import-export trade had to be __________.
[a] Decreased
[b] Diluted
[c] Increased
[d] Cancelled
Answer:
[a] Decreased

Question 33.
Expand MNC __________.
[a] Most Non Corrupt
[b] Multi National Community
[c] Multi National Company
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Multi National Company

Question 34.
Due to globalisation international technology transfer has __________.
[a] Increased
[b] Decreased
[c] No change
[d] Doubled
Answer:
[a] Increased

Question 35.
After globalisation the foreign travelling of various corporate executives, government officials has drastically __________.
[a] Stopped
[b] Decreased
[c] Increased
[d] No change
Answer:
[c] Increased

Question 36.
FDI refers to __________.
[a] Foreign Direct Involvement
[b] Foreign Direct Investment
[c] Foreign Detailed Investigation
[d] None of these
Answer:
[b] Foreign Direct Investment

Question 37.
Daimler Benz is a company which can be categorised a __________.
[a] Natural
[b] Local
[c] Domestic
[d] MNC
Answer:
[d] MNC

Question 38.
McDonald is doing business in __________.
[a] Electronics
[b] Food
[c] Vegetables
[d] Leather
Answer:
[b] Food

Question 39.
McDonald belongs to the category of __________.
[a] Packed food
[b] Home food
[c] More food
[d] Fast food
Answer:
[d] Fast food

Question 40.
In India McDonald has covered mainly __________.
[a] Rural sector
[b] Multi culture
[c] Towns
[d] None of these
Answer:
[b] Multi culture

Question 41.
Product of McDonald belongs to __________.
[a] Mono culture
[b] Multi culture
[c] Dual culture
[d] None of these
Answer:
[a] Mono culture

Question 42.
McDonald is originated from __________.
[a] UK
[b] USE
[c] South Africa
[d] USA
Answer:
[d] USA

Question 43.
By common Indians evaluation the McDonald outlets are considered __________.
[a] Cheap
[b] Costly
[c] Reasonable
[d] Luxury
Answer:
[b] Costly

Question 44.
KFC is another fast food compay which is spreading in India it is __________.
[a] King Fisher Company
[b] Kentucky Fried Chicken
[c] Karnataka Fisheries Company
[d] Kinley Fried Chicken
Answer:
[b] Kentucky Fried Chicken

Question 45.
McDonaldisation is explained to specify __________.
[a] Rationalisation
[b] Improvisation
[c] Maximisation
[d] Minimisation
Answer:
[a] Rationalisation

Question 46.
Child Labour is terminology used in the context of __________.
[a] Misuse
[b] Hard labour
[c] Not sending to school activity
[d] Engaged in economic
Answer:
[d] Engaged in economic

Question 47.
Main cause for child labour is __________.
[a] Earning
[b] Help
[c] Poverty
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Poverty

Question 48.
Child labour is found mainly in __________.
[a] SAARC countries
[b] Rich countries
[c] Poor and developing nations
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Poor and developing nations

Question 49.
Factories Act 1948 prohibits employing children below the age of __________.
[a] 14
[b] 18
[c] 17
[d] 15
Answer:
[a] 14

Question 50.
The right to children free and compulsory education act of 2009 is for children aged between __________.
[a] 5 to 15
[b] 6 to 14
[c] 6 to 118
[d] 6 to 15
Answer:
[b] 6 to 14

Question 51.
Bonded labour situation is happening mainly with very poor people and tribes unable to take care of __________.
[a] Roads
[b] Responsibilities
[c] Debt
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Debt

Question 52.
Bonded labour and child labour are deprived of good grooming due to __________.
[a] No home
[b] No food
[c] No culture
[d] No education
Answer:
[d] No education

Question 53.
Majority of up to 70% child labour are employed in __________.
[a] Agriculture
[b] Industries
[c] Brick kilns
[d] Fireworks factories
Answer:
[a] Agriculture

Question 54.
ILO stands for __________.
[a] Indian Labour Outfit
[b] International Labour Organisation
[c] Indian Labour Option
[d] Indian Labour Output
Answer:
[b] International Labour Organisation

Question 55.
Fireworks production is mainly in a place called Shivakashi. This is located in __________.
[a] UP
[b] MP
[c] TN
[d] AP
Answer:
[c] TN

Question 56.
Child labour work in silk manufacture is considered as dangerous due to their hands put in __________.
[a] Oil
[b] Chemicals
[c] Cold water
[d] Hot water
Answer:
[d] Hot water

Question 57.
For few years USA and Europe had boycotted buying Indian carpets due to __________.
[a] Usage of chemicals
[b] Use of child labour
[c] Heavy taxes
[d] Use of machines
Answer:
[b] Use of child labour

Question 58.
Bachpan Bachao Andolan an NGO against child labour was started in 1980 by __________.
[a] Anna Hazare
[b] Mayavathi
[c] Kailash Sathyarthi
[d] Jayalalitha
Answer:
[c] Kailash Sathyarthi

Question 59.
Kailash Satyarthi was awarded Nobel Prize in 2014 got his service to eradicate __________.
[a] Violence against women
[b] Terrorism
[c] Child labour
[d] Hard labour
Answer:
[c] Child labour

Question 60.
Kailash Satyarthi who was awarded Nobel Peace Prize in 2014 for his fight child labour originally from the state of __________.
[a] UP
[b] HP
[c] Rajasthan
[d] MP
Answer:
[d] MP

Question 61.
Women labour migration is more due to __________.
[a] III treatment
[b] More wages in other places
[c] Marriage
[d] Sickness
Answer:
[c] Marriage

Question 62.
Rural people migrate to towns and cities mainly in search of __________.
[a] Food
[b] Shelter
[c] Water
[d] Work
Answer:
[d] Work

Question 63.
Labour migration is more towards __________.
[a] Good climate
[b] Developing areas
[c] Drought areas
[d] None of these
Answer:
[b] Developing areas

Question 64.
Labour migration is more prevalent amongst workers of the type __________.
[a] Unskilled
[b] Skilled
[c] Talented
[d] Educated
Answer:
[a] Unskilled

Question 65.
The objectives of TV media was to spread plans and objectives of government policies and new coverage. However it is more used to __________.
[a] Sports
[b] Entertainment
[c] Criticism
[d] World news
Answer:
[b] Entertainment

Question 66.
Indian print and TV media is not giving due importance to all types of sports coverage. It is providing more time, space and representation to __________.
[a] Hockey
[b] Football
[c] Athletics
[d] Cricket
Answer:
[d] Cricket

Question 67.
All India Muslim League was founded in 1907 under __________.
[a] Aghan Khan
[b] Nawab Salimullah of Dacca
[c] Nawab Mohsin-ul Mulk
[d] All the above
Answer:
[d] All the above

Question 68.
The Hindu Mahasabha was set up in __________.
[a] 1915
[b] 1920
[c] 1927
[d] 1932
Answer:
[a] 1915

Question 69.
Which are the characteristic features of Indian Communalism?
[a] Extreme communalism
[b] Liberal communalism
[c] Communal nationalism
[d] All the above
Answer:
[d] All the above

Question 70.
Who proclaimed Rationalism is our only preceptor?
[a] Akshay Kumar Dutt
[b] Jyothibha Phule
[c] Anna Hazare
[d] Jayalalitha
Answer:
[a] Akshay Kumar Dutt

Question 71.
The past two decades of globalisation has seen rapid movement’s in __________.
[a] goods, services and people between countries
[b] goods, services and investments between countries
[c] goods, investments and people between countries
[d] none of these
Answer:
[b] goods, services and investments between countries

Question 72.
The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to __________.
[a] Set up new factories
[b] Buying existing local companies
[c] Form partnership with local companies
[d] Both a and b
Answer:
[c] Form partnership with local companies

Question 73.
Globalisation has led to higher standard of living of __________.
[a] Well-off consumers
[b] Poor consumers
[c] Big producers
[d] Small producers
Answer:
[a] Well-off consumers

Question 74.
A company that owns or controls production in more than one nation is called as __________.
[a] Multinational corporation
[b] Joint stock company
[c] Global company
[d] Domestic company
Answer:
[a] Multinational corporation

Question 75.
Where do MNCs choose to set up production?
[a] Cheap goods
[b] Cheap labour resources
[c] Economic sustainability
[d] None of these
Answer:
[b] Cheap labour resources

Question 76.
Cargill Foods, an MNCs has bought over which indigenous Indian company?
[a] Amul
[b] Britannia
[c] Parakh foods
[d] Dabur
Answer:
[c] Parakh foods

Question 77.
Ford Motors entered the Indian automobile business in collaboration with which Indian manufacturer?
[a] Mahindra and Mahindra
[b] Tata Motors
[c] Maruti Suzuki
[d] Hindustan Motors
Answer:
[a] Mahindra and Mahindra

Question 78.
What is happening with the import of Chinese toys in India?
[a] Indian toys are sold more
[b] Indian consumers are buying less
[c] Indian consumers are getting more choice at cheaper rates
[d] Chinese consumers are falling short of choice
Answer:
[c] Indian consumers are getting more choice at cheaper rates

Question 79.
Trade between countries __________.
[a] Determines price of product in different countries
[b] Decreases competition between countries
[c] Makes a country dependent on the other
[d] None of these
Answer:
[a] Determines price of product in different countries

Question 80.
Globalisation by connecting countries leads to __________.
[a] Lesser competition among producers
[b] Greater completion among producers
[c] No competition between producers
[d] None of these
Answer:
[b] Greater completion among producers

Question 81.
One major that has stimulated the globalisation process is __________.
[a] Effective utilisation of resources
[b] Increase in income and wealth
[c] Willingness to cooperate
[d] Rapid improvement in technology
Answer:
[d] Rapid improvement in technology

Question 82.
If tax is imposed on Chinese toys what will happen?
[a] Chinese toy-makers will benefit
[b] Indian toy-makers will prosper
[c] Chinese toys will remain cheap
[d] Chinese toys will loose market
Answer:
[b] Indian toy-makers will prosper

Question 83.
Which out of the following is an example for a trade barrier?
[a] Foreign investment
[b] Delay or damage of goods
[c] Taxon imports
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Taxon imports

Question 84.
Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is called __________.
[a] Liberalisation
[b] Investment
[c] Favourable trade
[d] Free trade
Answer:
[a] Liberalisation

Question 85.
WTO aims at __________.
[a] Establishing rules for domestic trade
[b] Restricting trade practice
[c] Liberalising international trade
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Liberalising international trade

Question 86.
Which out of the following industry has a large number of well-off buyers in urban areas?
[a] Footwear
[b] Automobiles
[c] Jewellery
[d] Clothing and accessories
Answer:
[b] Automobiles

Question 87.
Globalisation has created new opportunities of __________.
[a] Employment
[b] Emerging multinationals
[c] Providing services
[d] All the above
Answer:
[d] All the above

Question 88.
One major government initiative to attract foreign companies to invest in India is __________.
[a] To raise the standard of education
[b] To promote unemployment in the public sector
[c] To build special economic zones
[d] Both a and b
Answer:
[c] To build special economic zones

Question 89.
Globalisation has posed major challenges for __________.
[a] Big producers
[b] Smail producers
[c] Rural poor
[d] None of these
Answer:
[b] Smail producers

Question 90.
With the growing competition, most employers these days prefer to employ workers __________.
[a] Flexibly
[b] Quickly
[c] Selectively
[d] None of these
Answer:
[a] Flexibly

Family, Caste, Village and Women in India MCQ Questions

Family, Caste, Village and Women in India MCQ Questions

Question 1.
Traditionally joint family system was followed to provide _________.
[a] Security to all
[b] Freedom to all
[c] Restrictions to all
[d] Political strength
Answer:
[d] Political strength

Question 2.
Join family normally means _________.
[a] Husband- wife
[b] Parents and children
[c] 2-4 generations together
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] 2-4 generations together

Question 3.
Nuclear family normally means
[a] Large family
[b] Very large family
[c] Small family
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Small family

Question 4.
A single unit family now a day consists of _________.
[a] Father and son
[b] Parents and two children
[c] Mother and daughter
[d] Parents only
Answer:
[b] Parents and two children

Question 5.
Traditional family system traditions are still followed well in _________.
[a] Towns
[b] Rural areas
[c] Metro cities
[d] Cities
Answer:
[b] Rural areas

Question 6.
Stratification of society means _________.
[a] Making facilities
[b] Making differences
[c] Making structures
[d] None of these
Answer:
[b] Making differences

Question 7.
Stratification displays _________.
[a] Economic equality
[b] Political equality
[c] Cultural equality
[d] Social inequality
Answer:
[d] Social inequality

Question 8.
Stratification in clear terms means _________.
[a] Integration
[b] Up gradation
[c] Down gradation
[d] Discrimination
Answer:
[d] Discrimination

Question 9.
In olden days stratification was used to link castes with _________.
[a] Income
[b] Equality
[c] Occupations
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Occupations

Question 10.
As per Indian Constitution the reservations for SC and St are percentage of _________.
[a] 10 and 5
[b] 20 and 10
[c] 16 and 8
[d] 15 and 7.5
Answer:
[d] 15 and 7.5

Question 11.
Reservations were provided to SC/ST in Indian Constitution to create opportunity for them to gain _________.
[a] In-equality
[b] Dominance
[c] Equality
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Equality

Question 12.
Mandal commission was entrusted to create reservation policy for _________.
[a] SC
[b] ST
[c] BC
[d] Upper Casts
Answer:
[b] ST

Question 13.
Untouchability which was practiced long ago is now _________.
[a] Practiced
[b] Abolished
[c] Not practiced
[d] None of these
Answer:
[b] Abolished

Question 14.
In India Hindu religious people from 80% population and balance 20% cover Muslims, Christians, Jains, Sikhs, Buddhists. All these 20% category are called as _________.
[a] Majority religions
[b] Non-religion
[c] Minority religions
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Minority religions

Question 15.
As per Mandal Commissio the reservation percentage for BC is _________.
[a] 25
[b] 27
[c] 28
[d] 30
Answer:
[c] 28

Question 16.
The report of Mandal Commissionn was implemented in 1990 during the Prime Ministership of _________.
[a] VP Singh
[b] Charan Singh
[c] Deve Gowda
[d] Chandrashekar
Answer:
[a] VP Singh

Question 17.
As per the Indian Constitution the total reservations quota should be with the percentage limit of _________.
[a] 30
[b] 40
[c] 60
[d] 50
Answer:
[d] 50

Question 18.
In 1993 women representation in local bodies was fixed by constitution at _________.
[a] 50%
[b] 25%
[c] 35%
[d] 33%
Answer:
[d] 33%

Question 19.
In Karnataka Marathi speaking people are reoffered to as linguistic _________.
[a] Majority
[b] Minority
[c] Equality
[d] Intellects
Answer:
[b] Minority

Question 20.
In Karnataka Telugu speaking people are reoffered to as linguistic _________.
[a] Intellects
[b] Majority
[c] Rich
[d] Minority
Answer:
[d] Minority

Question 21.
During Independence time the rural population of India was around _________.
[a] 75%
[b] 85%
[c] 80%
[d] 95%
Answer:
[c] 80%

Question 22.
As per the census of India 2011 the rural population of India is around _________.
[a] 90%
[b] 70%
[c] 85%
[d] 60%
Answer:
[b] 70%

Question 23.
Main occupation of rural sector is cantered around _________.
[a] Fertilizers
[b] Agro products
[c] Water
[d] Tractor
Answer:
[b] Agro products

Question 24.
Big farm owners normally get sales revenues _________.
[a] Daily
[b] Weekly
[c] Monthly
[d] Seasonally
Answer:
[d] Seasonally

Question 25.
Which of these is a prominent rural sports _________.
[a] Cricket
[b] Hockey
[c] Kabaddi
[d] Foot ball
Answer:
[c] Kabaddi

Question 26.
Rural to urban migration is mainly for _________.
[a] Diseases
[b] Water
[c] Food
[d] Employment
Answer:
[d] Employment

Question 27.
Rural women migrate to rural or urban places mainly due to _________.
[a] Harassment
[b] Fear
[c] Children
[d] Marriage
Answer:
[d] Marriage

Question 28.
In India living standard is considered to be better in _________.
[a] Urban areas
[b] Rural areas
[c] Metro cities
[d] River side
Answer:
[a] Urban areas

Question 29.
In rural sector facilities like electricity, roads, drainage are _________.
[a] Surplus
[b] Adequate
[c] Inadequate
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Inadequate

Question 30.
The facilities for health care and education in rural sector are _________.
[a] Good
[b] Average
[c] Poor
[d] Very good
Answer:
[c] Poor

Question 31.
Women employees are not preferred by corporate mainly due to _________.
[a] Laziness
[b] Hard work
[c] Maternity leaves
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Maternity leaves

Question 32.
Employed women have dual responsibility these are _________.
[a] Job and child
[b] Job and family
[c] Job and sports
[d] None of these
Answer:
[b] Job and family
Q. Nuclear families _________
[a] are equally important in all cultures
[b] are organised in the same way in all cultures
[c] are universally responsible for the socialisation of children
[d] are found in a majority of cultures, although alternative forms are often more prevalent
Answer:
[d] are found in a majority of cultures, although alternative forms are often more prevalent

Question 33.
Increase in population does not necessarily increase _________.
[a] Unemployment
[b] Resource generation
[c] Health facilities
[d] Per capita income
Answer:
[a] Unemployment

Question 34.
July 11th is _________.
[a] World environment day
[b] World population day
[c] World AIDS-day
[d] World education day
Answer:
[b] World population day

Question 35.
Which among the following were considered untouchable in early India?
[a] Charamakara
[b] Rathakara
[c] Bothaandb
[d] Svarnakara
Answer:
[c] Bothaandb

Question 36.
Which one of the following was launched with the objective of helping poor in rural areas to become self-employed?
[a] DPAP
[b] IRDP
[c] TRYSEM
[d] DDP
Answer:
[c] TRYSEM

Question 37.
In Indian economy, the principal means of transportation is _________.
[a] airways
[b] railways
[c] roadways
[d] waterways
Answer:
[b] railways

Question 38.
Which one among the following organisation looks after the credit needs of agriculture and rural development in India?
[a] FCI
[b] IDBI
[c] ICAR
[d] NABARD
Answer:
[d] NABARD

Question 39.
Which industry employs the largest number of women in India?
[a] Tea
[b] Textile
[c] Jute
[d] Coal
Answer:
[a] Tea

Question 40.
Which of the following programs meets the credit needs of poor women?
[a] Mahila Samriddhi Yojna
[b] Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
[c] Mahila Samakhya Programme
[d] Inira Mahila Yojna
Answer:
[b] Rashtriya Mahila Kosh

Question 41.
Which one of the following is the basis of communal politics?
[a] People of different religions may have the same interests
[b] People of different religions may have the different interest’s conflicts
[c] People of different religions live in mutual co-operation
[d] People who follow different religions belong to the same social community
Answer:
[a] People of different religions may have the same interests

Question 42.
Name any two countries where women’s participation in public life is very high?
[a] Sri Lanka and Nepal
[b] Pakistan and Bhutan
[c] Sweden and Finland
[d] South Africa and
Answer:
[d] South Africa and

Question 43.
What is the literacy rate among women and men respectively in India?
[a] 54% and 76%
[b] 46% and 51%
[c] 76% and 85%
[d] 37% and 54%
Answer:
[b] 46% and 51%

Question 44.
Which one of the following is a form of communalism?
[a] Communal unity and integrity
[b] Communal fraternaity
[c] Communal violence, riots and massacre
[d] Communal harmony
Answer:
[b] Communal fraternaity

Question 45.
Which among the following programs aims at the promotion of savings among rural women?
[a] Mahila Samriddhi Yojna
[b] Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
[c] Javhar Rozgar Yojna
[d] Indira Mahila Yojna
Answer:
[a] Mahila Samriddhi Yojna

Question 46.
_________ is primarily a means to achieve social progress.
[a] Social planning
[b] Social security
[c] Social welfare
[d] Social benefit
Answer:
[c] Social welfare

Question 47.
Social development process is primarily directed towards one among the following aims _________.
[a] Economic growth with distributive justice
[b] Removal of poverty and hunger
[c] Integrated rural development
[d] Integrated women and child development
Answer:
[d] Integrated women and child development

Question 48.
The model of social work practice which is receiving emphasis at present in India is _________.
[a] Relief model
[b] Clinical model
[c] Human rights model
[d] Sustainable development model
Answer:
[d] Sustainable development model

Question 49.
What influences the healthy growth of child?
[a] One way love
[b] Parents balanced behaviour
[c] According to environment
[d] Good food and shelter
Answer:
[b] Parents balanced behaviour

Question 50.
(A): In ancient India during the time of the Aryans women enjoyed full and complete freedom and equality with men.
(R ): Because at that time woman were stronger than men and therefore men were afraid of women.
[a] Both (A) and (R ) are true, and (R ) is the correct explanation of (A )
[b] Both (A) and (R ) are true, but (R ) is not the correct explanation of (A )
[c] (A) is true but (R )is false
[d] (A) is false, 6ut (R ) is true .
Answer:
[c] (A) is true but (R )is false

Question 51.
The maternity leave period with fulS wage is
[a] 6 months
[b] 12 months
[c] 4 months
[d] 16 weeks
Answer:
[a] 6 months

Question 52.
Child – Woman ratio is a measure of _________.
[a] Population growth
[b] Migration
[c] Mortality
[d] Fertility
Answer:
[c] Mortality

Question 53.
Which one of the following state is mostly urbanised?
[a] Andhra Pradesh
[b] Tamil nadu
[c] Maharashtra
[d] Orissa
Answer:
[c] Maharashtra

Question 54.
Which of the following falls under perinatal mortality?
[a] Late foetal deaths
[b] Early neonatal deaths
[c] Late foetal and early neonatal deaths neonatal deaths
[d] Early foetal and late
Answer:
[c] Late foetal and early neonatal deaths neonatal deaths

Question 55.
(A ) Social welfare administration generates awareness about the challenge of a society in transition where negative use of technologies and practices are impacting on the wellbeing of women and children (R ): Social welfare administration is the summation of social welfare institutions, policies and programmes.
[a] Both (A) and (R ) are true, and (R ) is the correct explanation of (A )
[b] Both (A) and (R ) are true, but (R ) is not the correct explanation of (A )
[c] (A) is true bur ( R ) is false
[d] (A) is false, but ( R ) is true
Answer:
[b] Both (A) and (R ) are true, but (R ) is not the correct explanation of (A )

Question 56.
Removal of poverty was stated as the dominant objective in which of the following five year plan in India?
[a] 3rd
[b] 4th
[c] 5th
[d] 6th
Answer:
[c] 5th

Question 57.
The denominator of general fertility rate is _________.
[a] Midyear population
[b] Midyear population of 15-45 years
[c] Midyear population of all women
[d] Midyear population of 15-45 years age group married women
Answer:
[b] Midyear population of 15-45 years

Question 58.
Indian rural development programmes widened the gap between rich and poor which resulted into negative consequences _________.
[a] Suicides among farmers
[b] Richness of farmers
[c] Depeasantisation of farmers
[d] Depeasantisation and suicides of farmers
Answer:
[d] Depeasantisation and suicides of farmers

Question 59.
Rurbanism is a term that is related to the study of _________.
[a] Village
[b] Towns and cities
[c] Rural areas
[d] Life style of rural urban people
Answer:
[d] Life style of rural urban people

Question 60.
ASHA denotes _________.
[a] Association of Scientific Health Activists
[b] Association of Social Health Activists
[c] Accredited Social Health Activists
[d] Accredited Social Health Association
Answer:
[c] Accredited Social Health Activists

Question 61.
(A): Education of giris and women in India have reinforced gender role specially motherhood.
(R): In India women’s education was neglected for many years
[a] Both (A) and (R ) are true, and (R ) is the correct explanation of (A )
[b] Both (A) and (R ) are true, but (R ) is not the correct explanation of (A )
[c] (A) is true bur (R ) is false
[d] (A) is false, but (R ) is true 55
Answer:

Question 62.
Which Muslim king was the first made bold attempt to prohibit the sati system?
[a] Akbar
[b] Humayun
[c] Sha-jahan
[d] Shersha
Answer:
[b] Humayun

Question 63.
Widow Remarriage act was enacted in 1856 with the major effort of _________.
[a] Gopal Harideshmukh
[b] Bhandarkar
[c] Joti Rao Phule
[d] Vidya Sagar
Answer:
[d] Vidya Sagar

Question 64.
Women help line is _________.
[a] 1091
[b] 1098
[c] 1900
[d] 1092
Answer:
[a] 1091

Question 65.
Which of the following is correct for patriarchal society?
[a] Women dominated society
[b] Male dominated society
[c] Educated society
[d] Cultural society
Answer:
[b] Male dominated society

Question 66.
According to 2001 census the sex ratio in India was _________.
[a] 1000 males 950 females
[b] 1000 males 850 females
[c] 1000 males 927 females
[d] 1000 males 933 females
Answer:
[d] 1000 males 933 females

Question 67.
Gender division usually means _________.
[a] Biological differences between men and women
[b] Unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women
[c] Unequal child sex-ratio
[d] Absence of voting rights for women
Answer:
[b] Unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women

Question 68.
“Isn’t a woman’s life as dear to her as yours is to you? It is as if women are meant to be made of something different from men altogether, made from dust from earth or rock or rusted iron whereas you and your lives are made from the purest gold”- Who wrote this statement and in which book?
[a] Tarabai Shinde, Stripurushtulna
[b] Pandita Ramabai, The situation of Upper Gaste Women
[c] Begum Rokeya Sakhawat, Sultana’s Dream
[d] Raia Rammohan Roy, Sambad Kaumudi
Answer:
[a] Tarabai Shinde, Stripurushtulna

Question 69.
Who among the following women reformers supported women’s education by reinterpreting the Kuran in support of her arguments?
[a] Shabna Azmi
[b] Banu Begum
[c] Mumtaz Ali
[d] Regina Begum
Answer:
[b] Banu Begum

Question 70.
Name the coolie ship which carried many Indian labourers to Mauritius where they did a variety of forms of hard labours?
[a] John Allen
[b] Potter Ship
[c] John Potter
[d] None of the above
Answer:
[a] John Allen

Question 71.
The first educational institution which provide girls with the kind of learning that was usual for boys at the time _________.
[a] Sakhwat Memorial School
[b] Hindu Mahila Vidhyala
[c] Calcutta Mahila Mahavidhyala
[d] Mukti Mission
Answer:
[b] Hindu Mahila Vidhyala

Question 72.
Which one of the following social reformers fought against caste inequalities?
[a] Periyar Ramaswami Naiker
[b] Swami Dayanand Saraswathi
[c] Raja Ram Mohan Roy
[d] Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Answer:
[a] Periyar Ramaswami Naiker

Question 73.
Which one of the following was the view of Mahatma Gandhi about religion?
[a] He was in favour of Hinduism
[b] He was an ardent supporter of Muslim Religion
[c] By religion, Gandhi meant for moral values that inform all religion
[d] He said that India should adopt Christianity
Answer:
[b] He was an ardent supporter of Muslim Religion

Question 74.
Name any two political leaders who fought against caste inequalities?
[a] Dr.Manmohan Singh and Smt. Pratibha Devi Singh Patil
[b] Mr.Nithesh Kumar and Mr.Narendra Modi
[c] Dr.S. Radhakrishnan and Shri Morarji Desai
[d] Mahathma Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar
Answer:
[c] Dr.S. Radhakrishnan and Shri Morarji Desai

Question 75.
What is the average child sex ratio in India?
[a] 923
[b] 926
[c] 935
[d] 933
Answer:
[b] 926

Question 76.
Which one of the following refers to gender division?
[a] The hierarchical unequal roles assigned to man and woman by the society
[b] Biological difference between man and woman
[c] The ratio of male child and female child –
[d] The division between male labourers and female labourers
Answer:
[a] The hierarchical unequal roles assigned to man and woman by the society

Question 77.
Which of the following statement about India as a secular state is incorrect?
[a] Allows freedom to practice any religion
[b] There is no official religion
[c] Prohibits discrimination on religious grounds
[d] It reserves seats for religious minorities
Answer:
[c] Prohibits discrimination on religious grounds

Question 78.
Which of the following divisions is unique in India?
[a] Gender division
[b] Caste division
[c] Economic division
[d] Religious division
Answer:
[a] Gender division

Question 79.
Who among the following is feminist?
[a] Someone who does not believe in equal rights and opportunities for women and men
[b] Someone who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men
[c] Someone who believes in secularism
[d] None of these
Answer:
[b] Someone who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men

Question 80.
Which one of the following statements depicts Gandhi’s views on religion and politics?
[a] Politics should be guided by one religion only
[b] Religion should be ahead of politics
[c] Politics should be guided by ethics drawn from religion
[d] None of the above
Answer:
[c] Politics should be guided by ethics drawn from religion

Question 81.
A person who does not discriminate others on the basis of religious beliefs is called?
[a] Communist
[b] Secular
[c] Casteist
[d] Feminist
Answer:
[b] Secular

Question 82.
A system that values man more and give them power over women is called _________.
[a] Communist
[b] Socialist
[c] Patriarchy
[d] Feminist
Answer:
[c] Patriarchy

Question 83.
According to census of India 2001 what is the population % of SC?
[a] 16.2
[b] 26.3
[c] 36.2
[d] 46.2
Answer:
[a] 16.2

Question 84.
In which one of the following countries the participation of women in public life is very high?
[a] India
[b] Sweden
[c] Bangladesh
[d] Pakistan
Answer:
[d] Pakistan

Question 85.
In India seats are reserved for women in which of the following bodies?
[a] Lok Sabha
[b] Panchayati Raj Bodies
[c] State Legislative Assemblies
[d] Cabinet
Answer:
[b] Panchayati Raj Bodies

Question 86.
Which among the following plan aimed at improving the standard of living?
[a] 3rd
[b] 4th
[c] 5th
[d] 6th
Answer:
[b] 4th

Understanding The Diversity of Indian Society MCQ Questions Part 3

Understanding The Diversity of Indian Society MCQ Questions Part 3

Question 1.
As per the film rating above 80% means __________.
[a] Super hit
[b] Hit
[c] Average
[d] Good
Answer:
[a] Super hit

Question 2.
The actual amount received by the industry is known as __________.
[a] Commission
[b] Gross collection
[c] Super profit
[d] Net collection
Answer:
[b] Gross collection

Question 3.
Followings are the three major areas of insurance cover for films EXCEPT __________.
[a] Production
[b] Errors and omissions
[c] Direction
[d] Distribution
Answer:
[c] Direction

Question 4.
As per 2009 how many multiplexes were there?
[a] 235
[b] 225
[c] 290
[d] 218
Answer:
[b] 225

Question 5
Which movie was released in Mumbai alone through 275 shows?
[a] Khosala Ka Ghosala
[b] The Namesake
[c] Ghajni
[d] Bheja Fry
Answer:
[c] Ghajni

Question 6.
The first insurance policy was taken by __________ with United India Insurance for __________ under the Mukta Cine Policy.
[a] Karan Johar, My Name is Khan
[b] Reshamiya, Karzzzz
[c] Ashok Kumar, Kalpana
[d] Subhash Ghai, Taal
Answer:
[d] Subhash Ghai, Taal

Question 7.
Which year Prabhat Film Company in Maharashtra completed 80 years?
[a] 2008
[b] 2009
[c] 2006
[d] 2001
Answer:
[a] 2008

Question 8.
Which was the second silent movie shown in Mumbai?
[a] Manthan
[b] Raja Harischandra
[c] Ardhasatya
[d] Ankur
Answer:
[b] Raja Harischandra

Question 9.
Which year Film-making started in France?
[a] 1878
[b] 1993
[c] 1896
[d] 1989
Answer:
[c] 1896

Question 10.
Which company brought women in women’s roles for the first time?
[a] Prabhath company
[b] Baburao Painter’s Gujarath Film Company
[c] The artist company
[d] Baburao Painter’s Maharashtra Film Company
Answer:
[d] Baburao Painter’s Maharashtra Film Company

Question 11.
Which is the first talkie of Prabhat Film Company?
[a] Ayodhyacha Raja
[b] Sant Tukaram
[c] Agnikankan
[d] Mayamacchinder
Answer:
[a] Ayodhyacha Raja

Question 12.
__________ was the first Cinemascope Film?
[a] Kagaz Ke Phool
[b] Deewana
[c] Darr
[d] Bazigar
Answer:
[a] Kagaz Ke Phool

Question 13.
Which movie received an award as one of the best three movies at the Venice Film Festival on 4th September 1937?
[a] Ayodhyacha Raja
[b] SantTukaram
[c] Agnikankan
[d] Mayamacchinder
Answer:
[b] SantTukaram

Question 14.
__________ is an independent South-based company associated with cinema advertising for many years.
[a] Volvos
[b] Pavlov
[c] Salvos
[d] Maldives
Answer:
[c] Salvos

Question 15.
Followings are the clients of salvos EXCEPT __________.
[a] BPL
[b] Premier Mills
[c] Sandoz
[d] Onida
Answer:
[d] Onida

Question 16.
Followings are the merits of Radio EXCEPT __________.
[a] High impact
[b] Local and friendly
[c] Low cost
[d] Regional Selectivity
Answer:
[a] High impact

Question 17.
Followings are the merits of Outdoor EXCEPT __________.
[a] Long life
[b] Weather/vandalism
[c] Colour
[d] Point of sale
Answer:
[b] Weather/vandalism

Question 18.
Followings are the merits of Cinema EXCEPT __________.
[a] Captive and relaxed audience
[b] Easily absorbed
[c] High production
[d] High concentration
Answer:
[c] High production

Question 19.
Bengal produced __________ films in 2008.
[a] 53
[b] 47
[c] 38
[d] 60
Answer:
[d] 60

Question 20.
When and where did the Marathi film festival was organised?
[a] August 2008 at Mauritius
[b] August 2008 at Mumbai
[c] September 2009 at London
[d] September 2009 at Hyderabad
Answer:
[a] August 2008 at Mauritius

Question 21.
The number of films released in the year 2007 by Hindi film industry were __________.
[a] 249
[b] 257
[c] 149
[d] 111
Answer:
[b] 257

Question 22.
Which was the first 3D Film of India?
[a] Kagaz Ke Phool
[b] Deewana
[c] Darr
[d] My Dear Kuttichathan
Answer:
[d] My Dear Kuttichathan

Question 23.
The first Dada Saheb Phaike award is won by?
[a] Devika Rani
[b] Dileep Kumar
[c] Dada Saheb Phaike
[d] Jatin Lalit
Answer:
[a] Devika Rani

Question 24.
Film and Televison Institute of India is situated at __________.
[a] Delhi
[b] Pune
[c] Bangalore
[d] Chennai
Answer:
[b] Pune

Question 25.
The number of films released in the year 2007 by Telugu film industry were __________.
[a] 111
[b] 149
[c] Bangalore
[d] 257
Answer:
[b] 149

Question 26.
Who is the director of the movie Sikander?
[a] Wadia
[b] V. Shantaram
[c] Gajanan Jagirdar
[d] Sohrab Modi
Answer:
[c] Gajanan Jagirdar

Question 27.
Who is the director of the movie The Court Dancer?
[a] Wadia
[b] V. Shantaram
[c] Gajanan Jagirdar
[d] Sohrab Modi
Answer:
[d] Sohrab Modi

Question 28.
Who is the director of the movie Shakuntala?
[a] Wadia
[b] V. Shantaram
[c] Sohrab Modi
[d] Gajanan Jagirdar
Answer:
[b] V. Shantaram

Question 29.
Betow mentioned are the movies by Yash chopra except __________.
[a] Barsaat (1949)
[b] Pyaasa (1957)
[c] Andaz (1949)
[d] Mother India (1957)
Answer:
[d] Mother India (1957)

Question 30.
What is the theme of the movie Mughal-E-Azam (I960)?
[a] Action
[b] Negative characters
[c] Relationships
[d] Films
Answer:
[a] Action

Question 31.
Among the following movies for one of its ICICI Bank was brand, identify?
[a] Kaante
[b] Baghban
[c] Chalte Chlalte
[d] Dhoom
Answer:
[b] Baghban

Question 32.
Who was the pioneer of authoritative research on Hindi films?
[a] Greta Garbo
[b] Fairbanks
[c] Rosie Thomas
[d] Mary Pickford
Answer:
[c] Rosie Thomas

Question 33.
Who was a yesteryears actress?
[a] Pratima Gupta
[b] Rekha Das
[c] Gita Bali
[d] Begum Para
Answer:
[d] Begum Para

Question 34.
Who is the author of the book named ‘The Kapoors’?
[a] Kishwar
[b] Bunny Reuben
[c] Madhu Jain
[d] Lord Meghnad Desai
Answer:
[c] Madhu Jain

Question 35.
Who is the author of the book named ‘To Be or Not To B (Bachchan) __________.
[a] Lord Meghnad Desai
[b] Madhu Jain
[c] Kishwar
[d] Khalid Mohammed
Answer:
[d] Khalid Mohammed

Question 36.
What do you mean by Anime?
[a] A Japanese style of animated movie
[b] A Chinese style of animated movie
[c] A German style of animated movie
[d] A Spanish style of animated movie
Answer:
[a] A Japanese style of animated movie

Question 37.
Who is an Antagonist?
[a] One who opposes the film
[b] One who opposes the central character of a film
[c] One who opposes the villain character of a film
[d] One who opposes the director of a film
Answer:
[b] One who opposes the central character of a film

Question 38.
What is Automatic dialogue replacement (ADR)?
[a] Ambience of a scene
[b] Editing sound of the film during ADR
[c] Re-recording of dialogue during post-production
[d] It is the first stage of cutting after synchronising the rushes
Answer:
[c] Re-recording of dialogue during post-production

Question 39.
What is Anemographic?
[a] The end that runs counter to expectations
[b] A final print which first comes out after post-production, which has sound sync and colour corrected sequences
[c] Light from a source other than the sun
[d] An optical system with specific dimensions of the picture horizontally and vertically
Answer:
[d] An optical system with specific dimensions of the picture horizontally and vertically

Question 40.
What is Backlot?
[a] Area for open air sets in the studio
[b] Voices with no meaningful words
[c] Sony’s video
[d] A momentary pause either in delivery or action
Answer:
[a] Area for open air sets in the studio

Question 41.
What is b.g?
[a] Voices with no meaningful words
[b] Short farm for background in script
[c] Sony’s video
[d] A momentary pause either in delivery or action
Answer:
[b] Short farm for background in script

Question 42.
Camera operator is also known as __________.
[a] Camera Crew
[b] Camera loader
[c] Camera man
[d] Camera rehearsal
Answer:
[c] Camera man

Question 43.
What is Cameo?
[a] It ensures smoother transition than a cut
[b] Portrait lighting
[c] A team of actors appearing in a movie
[d] Small part played by a renowned actor
Answer:
[d] Small part played by a renowned actor

Question 44.
The arrangement of shots or the design of a movie is known as __________.
[a] Decoupage
[b] Denouement
[c] Deferments
[d] Decibel
Answer:
[a] Decoupage

Question 45.
Bulb 150 to 200 W – used for highlighting scenes is known as __________.
[a] Dimmer
[b] Dinky inky
[c] Decibel
[d] Diqital versatile disc
Answer:
[b] Dinky inky

Question 46.
A patented noise reduction and sound enhancement process is called as __________.
[a] Dope sheet
[b] Dolly
[c] Dolby
[d] Dinky inky
Answer:
[c] Dolby

Question 47.
A small wheel-supported camera platform that rolls along dolly tracks carrying the camera is termed as __________.
[a] Dinky inky
[b] Dolby
[c] Dope sheet
[d] Dolby
Answer:
[d] Dolby

Question 48.
What do you understand by Extreme close-up?
[a] A strong emphasis shot, which is more detailed than a close-up
[b] A shot composed with the horizon not parallel with the bottom of the frame
[c] A scene that has just commenced, is flawed and hence does not require the new slate scene numbers
[d] A film of at least a length of one hour, meant for theatrical release
Answer:
[a] A strong emphasis shot, which is more detailed than a close-up

Question 49.
Leaflets advertising a film is known as __________.
[a] Foley
[b] Fliers
[c] Fusion
[d] Frame
Answer:
[b] Fliers

Question 50.
Who is Gaffar?
[a] Assistant lighting technician
[b] Cameraman
[c] Chief lighting technician
[d] Assistant director
Answer:
[c] Chief lighting technician

Question 51.
The degree of contrast in a print or a negative, is termed as __________.
[a] Gaffar
[b] Gauge
[c] Gobo
[d] Gamma
Answer:
[d] Gamma

Question 52.
What do you mean by Gobo?
[a] Light deflecting or sound absorbing panel mounted on a stand
[b] A camera-mounting device on a tripod or dolly ensuring free movement of the camera
[c] The variation of tonal values in a photographic image
[d] A part of the scene is painted optically, and the scene is shot
Answer:
[a] Light deflecting or sound absorbing panel mounted on a stand

Question 53.
What is Halation?
[a] The character is removed from our attention
[b] Halo created by bright light around the subjects
[c] Shot taken looking down on the subject
[d] Straight into the camera
Answer:
[b] Halo created by bright light around the subjects

Question 54.
Small area of a scene, which is brightly illuminated, is known as __________.
[a] Hot spot
[b] Hue
[c] Hype
[d] Hypersonic
Answer:
[a] Hot spot

Question 55.
The essence of a colour determined by spectral wavelength __________.
[a] Hypersonic
[b] Hue
[c] Hype
[d] Hot spot
Answer:
[b] Hue

Question 56.
A shot that relates the subject to the background is called as __________.
[a] Low-key lighting
[b] Low key
[c] Long shot (LS)
[d] Low angle shot
Answer:
[c] Long shot (LS)

Question 57.
The Print which carries both the picture and sound track is known as __________.
[a] Long short Print
[b] Single Print
[c] Dual Print
[d] Married Print
Answer:
[d] Married Print

Question 58.
What is Martini shot?
[a] The last shot of the working day/night
[b] A shot encompassing a long scene, which is later split into close-ups, cut-in, etc.
[c] Art work, usually on glass, is combined with live action
[d] A shot between a medium shot and a long shot
Answer:
[a] The last shot of the working day/night

Question 59.
Number of beats in a bar is known as __________.
[a] MAVIKA
[b] Meter
[c] Miniature
[d] Matte artist
Answer:
[b] Meter

Question 60.
When shots of objects either move specifically or slowly to cause smearing effect, are termed as __________.
[a] Motion control
[b] Same as negative
[c] Motion blurs
[d] A quarter inch tape recorded
Answer:
[c] Motion blurs

Question 61.
What is Nagra?
[a] Words spoken over film
[b] Same as negative
[c] No good shots
[d] A quarter inch tape recorded
Answer:
[d] A quarter inch tape recorded

Question 62.
What is N.G.Slots?
[a] A quarter inch tape recorder
[b] No good shots
[c] Same as negative
[d] Words spoken over film
Answer:
[b] No good shots

Question 63.
Shallow cuts on the edges of a film is known as __________.
[a] N.G.Slots
[b] Nut
[c] Notch
[d] One-one
Answer:
[c] Notch

Question 64.
Which certificate makes a film eligible to get tax exemption?
[a] U Certificate
[b] A Certificate
[c] U/A Certificate
[d] Q Certificate
Answer:
[d] Q Certificate

Question 65.
What is Rotascoping?
[a] An animation technique in which live action is traced in images
[b] First assembly of shots into a work print arranged sequentially
[c] It builds up humour by repetition as the film progresses
[d] Unedited material immediately after shoot, seen for approval
Answer:
[a] An animation technique in which live action is traced in images

Question 66.
A jerky frame in the shots is known as __________.
[a] Safe Area
[b] Saccade frame
[c] Sampling
[d] Screen Time
Answer:
[b] Saccade frame

Question 67.
What do you mean by Sequel?
[a] Unedited material immediately after shoot, seen for approval
[b] First assembly of shots into a work print arranged sequentially
[c] A movie that extends the story of a previously filmed movie
[d] An animation technique in which live action is traced in images
Answer:
[c] A movie that extends the story of a previously filmed movie

Question 68.
What is Splice?
[a] Audio component of a movie
[b] These create illusion in a movie
[c] It is responsible for the movie’s sound track
[d] Tojoin two pieces of film
Answer:
[d] Tojoin two pieces of film

Question 69.
Summary of the script is known as __________.
[a] Synopsis
[b] Synthesis
[c] Abstract
[d] list
Answer:
[a] Synopsis

Question 70.
What is Taii-away shot?
[a] The last shot of the working day/night
[b] Moving away from the camera, say the shot of the back of a man bidding goodbye
[c] Art work, usually on glass, is combined with live action
[d] A shot between a medium shot and a long shot
Answer:
[b] Moving away from the camera, say the shot of the back of a man bidding goodbye

Question 71.
A script to be produced for TV is known as __________.
[a] Television movie
[b] Teaser
[c] Teleplay
[d] Television cut off
Answer:
[c] Teleplay

Question 72.
The area of the frame that can be viewed when telecast.
[a] Television movie
[b] Teaser
[c] Teleplay
[d] Television cut off
Answer:
[d] Television cut off

Question 73.
A feature film funded by a TV network __________.
[a] Television movie
[b] Teaser
[c] Teleplay
[D] Television movie
Answer:
[a] Television movie

Question 74.
Pre-title action which intrigues and arrests the audience attention is termed as __________.
[a] Television movie
[b] Teaser
[c] Teleplay
[d] Television cut off
Answer:
[b] Teaser

Question 75.
The pace of the film is called as __________.
[a] Teaser
[b] Television cut off
[c] Tempo
[d] Television movie
Answer:
[c] Tempo

Question 76.
Camera movement, either up or down during the taking of a shot, is known as __________.
[a] Teaser
[b] Television cut off
[c] Teleplay
[d] Tilt
Answer:
[d] Tilt

Question 77.
In which system one single shot is taken continuously without any interruption for ten minutes?
[a] TMT Technique
[b] Television movie
[c] Television cut off
[d] Teleplay
Answer:
[a] TMT Technique

Question 78.
The process in which sub-titles are visible after the removal of the emulsion from the film, is known as __________.
[a] Teleplay
[b] Titra
[c] Tempo
[d] Teaser
Answer:
[b] Titra

Question 79.
What is Track laying?
[a] The manner of displaying the title of the film or screen
[b] A shot showing two people in a frame with head and shoulders
[c] At the time of editing, sound is assembled in such a way that it can be ma-nipulated during mixing
[d] To remove a short section or track
Answer:
[c] At the time of editing, sound is assembled in such a way that it can be ma-nipulated during mixing

Question 80.
A shot showing two people in a frame with head and shoulders is termed as __________.
[a] Twin shot
[b] Double shot
[c] Duai shot
[d] Two shot
Answer:
[d] Two shot

Question 81.
Slowing down the frame rate so that .when the picture is screened at normal rate, the action appears to be in fast motion is termed as __________.
[a] Under cranking
[b] Over cranking
[c] Below cranking
[d] Normal cranking
Answer:
[a] Under cranking

Question 82.
What is Underscore?
Answer:
[a] Voice score for emotional enhancement
[b] Music score for emotional enhancement
[c] Duai score for emotional enhancement
[d] A shot showing two people in a frame with head and shoulders
Answer:
[b] Music score for emotional enhancement

Question 83.
A device to change the aspect ratio without changing lenses or aperture plates is known as __________.
[a] Versatile disc, digital
[b] Video compact disc
[c] Varioscope
[d] Visual effect
Answer:
[c] Varioscope

Question 84.
What is Voice over (VO)?
[a] The The voice whose speaker is shown
[b] A device to change the aspect ratio without changing lenses or aperture plates
[c] Voice score for emotional enhancement
[d] The voice whose speaker is not shown
Answer:
[d] The voice whose speaker is not shown

Question 85.
What is Whip pan?
[a] Fast pan that incorporates much motion blur
[b] Slow pan that incorporates much motion blur
[c] Moving pan that incorporates much motion blur
[d] Forward pan that incorporates much motion blur
Answer:
[a] Fast pan that incorporates much motion blur

Question 86.
Too-quick pan is called as __________.
[a] Whip over
[b] Whip pan
[c] Quick whip
[d] Quick pan
Answer:
[b] Whip pan

Question 87.
Who is a wrangler?
[a] He doubles for another actor for a stunt
[b] He captures the film’s action on non-movie camera
[c] He handles livestock, or entities that cannot be spoken with
[d] He plans and arranges the stunts.
Answer:
[c] He handles livestock, or entities that cannot be spoken with

Question 88.
What is Xylonite?
[a] A musical instrument
[b] Celluloid film
[c] Slang for a story
[d] The first frame of a roll
Answer:
[b] Celluloid film

Question 89.
Slang for a story is termed as __________.
[a] Yell
[b] Yodel
[c] Yarn
[d] Yang
Answer:
[c] Yarn

Question 90.
Spectators encourage film people by yelling is termed as __________.
[a] Yarn
[b] Yell
[c] Yodel
[d] Yang
Answer:
[b] Yell

Question 91.
Sing by changing from ordinary voice to false and oscillate like this is known as __________.
[a] Yell
[b] Yodel
[c] Yarn
[d] Yang
Answer:
[b] Yodel

Question 92.
In which year, for the first time, the audience not only saw the actors on screen, they heard them talking __________.
[a] 1921
[b]1951
[c] 1931
[d] 1971
Answer:
[c] 1931

Question 93.
Which movie was based on a Parsi play by Joseph David?
[a] Thanawalla
[b] Harischandra Bhatwadekar
[c] Hiralai Sen
[d] Alam Ara of Adeshir Irani
Answer:
[d] Alam Ara of Adeshir Irani

Question 94.
Which was the first movie with sound?
[a] Alam Ara of Adeshir Irani
[b] Hiralai Sen
[c] Harischandra Bhatwadekar
[d] Thanawalla
Answer:
[a] Alam Ara of Adeshir Irani

Question 95.
Which is the first Snaskrit film?
[a] Shankaracharya
[b] Bhagavad Gita
[c] Gunda
[d] Raagam
Answer:
[a] Shankaracharya

Question 96.
When did Indian film industry celebrated its 100 years?
[a] 2011
[b] 2013
[c] 2000
[d] 2005
Answer:
[b] 2013

Question 97.
Who is regarded as the father of Indian film industry?
[a] K.L Seigal
[b] M Arora
[c] Dadasaheb Phalke
[d] None of them.
Answer:
[c] Dadasaheb Phalke

Question 98.
Which year Government of India constituted Dadasaheb Phalke award?
[a] 1955
[b] 1974
[c] 1949
[d] 1969
Answer:
[d] 1969

Question 99.
Geographical diversity is concerned to __________.
[a] Land and Building
[b] Rich and Poor
[c] Politics
[d] Race and Culture
Answer:
[d] Race and Culture

Question 100.
Wheat is not used for making __________.
[a] Roti
[b] Kulcha
[c] Naan
[d] Dosa
Answer:
[d] Dosa

Question 101.
Islam and Christianity entered India due to __________.
[a] Indian rulers
[b] Indian invasion
[c] Foreign invasion and rule
[d] None of these
Answer:
[c] Foreign invasion and rule

Question 102.
Gandhi topi was made of __________.
[a] Artificial cloth
[b] Woolen
[c] Cotton cloth
[d] Rexin
Answer:
[c] Cotton cloth

Question 103.
Mahabharatha stories are narrated mainly to teach __________.
[a] Good will
[b] Living together
[c] Hatred
[d] Ethics and values
Answer:
[d] Ethics and values

Question 104.
Taj Mahal may be great architectural wonders in fact it is __________.
[a] Worship place
[b] Burial place
[c] Tourist place
[d] None of these
Answer:
[b] Burial place

Question 105.
Gui Gumbos is situated in the district of __________.
[a] Gulbarga
[b] Bidar
[c] Vijaypura
[d] Coorg
Answer:
[c] Vijaypura

Question 106.
Largest number of tigers in india live in the state of __________.
[a] Karnataka
[b] Madhya Pradesh
[c] Kerala
[d] Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
[a] Karnataka

Question 107.
In its natural habitation South Africa does not have __________.
[a] Lions
[b] Cheetha
[c] Tigers
[d] Bison.
Answer:
[c] Tigers

Question 108.
Sheep are reared not only fo reared not only for non-veg food and leather but also to collect __________.
[a] Teeth
[b] Bones
[c] Nails
[d] Wool
Answer:
[d] Wool

Question 109.
Upanayana or Thread Ceremony is practice in Hinduism for __________
[a] Girls
[b] Boys
[c] Widow
[d] Parents
Answer:
[b] Boys

Question 110.
Traditionally the family living system in India is __________.
[a] Joint family
[b] Nuclear family
[c] Multifamily
[d] Single living
Answer:
[a] Joint family

Question 111.
World famous Dasara festival in Mysore lasts for __________ days.
[a] 10
[b] 9
[c] 7
[d] 8
Answer:
[b] 9

Question 112.
After India Sikh population is seen more in __________.
[a] USA
[b] South Africa
[c] Sri Lanka
[d] Canada
Answer:
[d] Canada

Question 113.
Hindus follow __________.
[a] One God
[b] One Goddess
[c] Several Gods
[d] Several Gods and evil spirit
Answer:
[c] Several Gods

Question 114.
Who is the founder of Jainism?
[a] Dalai Lama
[b] Buddha
[c] Mahaveera
[d] Ashoka
Answer:
[c] Mahaveera

Question 115.
Famous temple of Sikh in Amritsar is called as __________.
[a] Golden temple
[b] Lotds temple
[c] Gariand temple
[d] Shaheed temple
Answer:
[a] Golden temple

Question 116.
In Hindu marriage the most important legal ritual is __________.
[a] Engagement
[b] Garlanding
[c] Saptapadi
[d] Sangeet
Answer:
[c] Saptapadi

Question 117.
Most important practice of Jainism is __________.
[a] Violence
[b] Tolerance
[c] Business
[d] Non-violence
Answer:
[d] Non-violence

Question 118.
Moharram is observed by musilims all over the world as __________.
[a] Mourning day
[b] Peace day
[c] Birhday
[d] Feasting day
Answer:
[a] Mourning day

Question 119.
Dali Lama religious leader coming from __________.
[a] Bhuthan
[b] Nepal
[c] Tibet
[d] Sikkim
Answer:
[c] Tibet

Question 120.
A population with natality equal to mortality is __________.
[a] Stable
[b] Increasing
[c] Decreasing
[d] Growing
Answer:
[a] Stable

Question 121.
According to national population policy, the marriageable age for girls has been raised in India from 15 years to __________.
[a] 19
[b] 18
[c] 20
[d] 21
Answer:
[b] 18

Question 122.
Consequences of population explosion were explained for the first time by __________.
[a] De Vries
[b] Darwin
[c] Malthus
[d] Lanmarck
Answer:
[c] Malthus

Question 123.
Demographic features of developing countries are __________.
[a] High infant mortality, low fertility, young age distribution and uneven population growth
[b] High fertility, high density, high mortality rate and young age distribution
[c] High fertility, falling mortality rate, rapid population growth and young age distribution
[d] High density, high mortality, uneven population growth and very old age distribution
Answer:
[c] High fertility, falling mortality rate, rapid population growth and young age distribution

Question 124.
Each environment supports limited population depending upon its __________.
[a] Biotic potential
[b] Natality
[c] Reproductive potential
[d] Carrying capacity
Answer:
[d] Carrying capacity

Understanding The Diversity of Indian Society MCQ Questions Part 2

Understanding The Diversity of Indian Society MCQ Questions Part 2

Question 1.
Nand Lal Bose, Manjit Bawa,Tyeb Mehta are __________.
[a] Photographers
[b] Classical Singers
[c] Painters
[d] Poets
Answer:
[c] Painters

Question 2.
Which one of the following languages is not widely spoken in Tripura?
[a] Bengali
[b] Tripuri
[c] Hindi
[d] English
Answer:
[d] English

Question 3.
Which of the following languages are spoken in Dadra and Nagara Haveli?
[a] Gujrati
[b] Marati
[c] Both a and b
[d] English
Answer:
[c] Both a and b

Question 4.
Who wrote down the epic Mahabarata while Vyasa was dictating __________.
[a] Narada
[b] Vishwakarma
[c] Ganesha
[d] Shiva
Answer:
[c] Ganesha

Question 5.
Kathak is a classical dance of __________.
[a] Kerala
[b] North India
[c] Tamil Nadu
[d] Manipur
Answer:
[b] North India

Question 6.
Dance patterns considered sacred to Lord Shiva are in __________.
[a] Bharatnatyam and Odissi
[b] Bharatnatyam and Kathakali
[c] Bharatnatyam and Kathak
[d] Bharatnatyam and Mohiniyattam
Answer:
[d] Bharatnatyam and Mohiniyattam

Question 7.
Which is the Rajasthani dance that is performed by women by carrying earthen pots on their heads?
[a] Panihari
[b] Raika
[c] Tera Tali
[d] Suisini
Answer:
[a] Panihari

Question 8.
Which of the following dance is performed by women in Punjab?
[a] Garbha
[b] Giddha
[c] Ghero
[d] Goncha
Answer:

Question 9.
Which of these dances are performed on the edge of brass plates?
[a] Bharatnatyam
[b] Kathak
[c] Kuchipudi
[d] Odissi
Answer:
[c] Kuchipudi

Question 10.
Karnataka is famous for the dance form __________.
[a] Bharatnatyam
[b] Kathak
[c] Kuchipudi
[d] Yakshagana
Answer:
[d] Yakshagana

Question 11.
Chhau is dance of __________.
[a] Bihar
[b] Gujrat
[c] Assam
[d] Kashmir
Answer:
[a] Bihar

Question 12.
Hattari is dance of __________.
[a] Rajasthan
[b] Karnataka
[c] Andra Pradesh
[d] Assam
Answer:
[b] Karnataka

Question 13.
Laho is dance of __________.
[a] Bihar
[b] Gujrat
[c] Meghalaya
[d] Kashmir
Answer:
[c] Meghalaya

Question 14.
Kathak, Nautanki, Jhora and Kajri are the important dances of __________.
[a] Jandk
[b] Rajasthan
[c] Tamil Nadu
[d] Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
[d] Uttar Pradesh

Question 15.
The dance in Himachal Pradesh performed indoor solo or duet, especially when life comes to a standstill during cold winter is __________.
[a] Munzra
[b] Rouf
[c] Luddi
[d] Gidda
Answer:
[a] Munzra

Question 17.
The dance performed by women to invoke rain in Bihar is __________.
[a] Faguna
[b] Bihu
[c] Purbi
[d] Jata Jatin
Answer:
[d] Jata Jatin

Question 18.
Which of the following dances of India is based upon the principle of Natyashastra?
[a] Luddi
[b] Odissi
[c] Purbi
[d] Jata Jatin
Answer:
[b] Odissi

Question 19.
Kannada is a language of which state?
[a] Maharashtra
[b] Assam
[c] Karnataka
[d] Gujrat
Answer:
[c] Karnataka

Question 20.
Apart from Assamee w hich is also the official language of Assam?
[a] Telegu
[b] Oria
[c] Hindi
[d] Bengali
Answer:
[d] Bengali

Question 21.
In which language “vande matram” is written?
[a] Marati
[b] Oria
[c] Hindi
[d] Kannada
Answer:
[a] Marati

Question 22.
Which language has got highest Gnana Peeth Award-Literature?
[a] Marati
[b] Kannada
[c] Bengali
[d] Oria
Answer:
[b] Kannada

Question 23.
Tagin is a language is __________.
[a] Orissa
[b] Arunachal Pradesh
[c] Tripura
[d] Tamil Nadu
Answer:
[b] Arunachal Pradesh

Question 24.
The oldest Indian language is __________.
[a] Kannada
[b] Marati
[c] Tamil
[d] Telugu
Answer:
[c] Tamil

Question 25.
Modern Indo Aryan languages are based on an ancient language called __________.
[a] Sanskrit
[b] Marati
[c] Tamil
[d] Telugu
Answer:
[a] Sanskrit

Question 26.
The official language of the government of India is __________.
[a] English
[b] Hindi
[c] Bengali
[d] Oria
Answer:
[b] Hindi

Question 27.
Which Academy promotes and develops literature in all the 22 languages of India?
[a] Bhasha Academy
[b] Lalit kala Academy
[c] Sahitya Academy
[d] Kalanikethan Academy
Answer:
[c] Sahitya Academy

Question 28.
Which languages of India belong to Dravidian family?
[a] Languages of Northern India
[b] Languages of Western India
[c] Languages of Eastern India
[d] Languages of Southern India
Answer:
[d] Languages of Southern India

Question 29.
Which language gained most by the patronage given to Scholars by Krishna Oeva Rai?
[a] Telugu
[b] Marati
[c] Tamil
[d] Sanskrit
Answer:
[a] Telugu

Question 30.
Of the 250 known alphabets in the history of language, how many are in use today?
[a] 26
[b] 50
[c] 100
[d] 45
Answer:
[b] 50

Question 31.
The language of the discourses of Gauthama Budha was __________.
[a] Sanskrit
[b] Bhojpuri
[c] Pali
[d] Mahadhi
Answer:
[c] Pali

Question 32.
Which of the following languages was adopted for preaching in Mahayana Buddhism?
[a] Pali
[b] Mahadhi
[c] Tamil
[d] Sanskrit
Answer:
[d] Sanskrit

Question 33.
How many languages are so far listed in the eighth schedule of the Indian constitution?
[a] 18
[b] 20
[c] 16
[d] 22
Answer:
[a] 18

Question 34.
Which among the following is known as the earliest example of Panchayatana style of temple?
[a] Temple at Pathari
[b] Dashavatara temple at Deogarh
[c] Shatrugneshwara temple at Bhubaneshwar
[d] Lakshmana temple at Sirpur
Answer:
[b] Dashavatara temple at Deogarh

Question 35.
Which among the following is the hallmark feature of the Dravida style of temple architecture?
[a] Shikhara
[b] Gopuram
[c] Vimana
[d] Mandapa
Answer:
[c] Vimana

Question 36.
Which among the following is/ are works of Kalidasa?
[a] Ritusamhara
[b] Meghaduta
[c] Kumarashambhava
[d] All the above
Answer:
[d] All the above

Question 37.
Which the following is the most famous bronze image of Chola period?
[a] Nataraja
[b] Murugan
[c] Venkateshwara
[d] Vishnu
Answer:
[a] Nataraja

Question 38.
Before 18th century dresses were not regulated by __________.
[a] Social hierarchy
[b] Regional codes
[c] Democratic values
[d] Gender
Answer:
[c] Democratic values

Question 39.
Factor in change in clothes after 18th century was __________.
[a] Decolonisation
[b] Notions of identity
[c] Fashions
[d] Industrialisation
Answer:
[d] Industrialisation

Question 40.
Law related to dress codes __________.
[a] Caste laws
[b] Feudal privileges
[c] Livres
[d] Sumptuary
Answer:
[d] Sumptuary

Question 41.
Which one among the materials prescribed for royalty?
[a] Ermine and brocade
[b] Liberty
[c] Flax and linen
[d] Social inferiors
Answer:
[a] Ermine and brocade

Question 42.
San culotte’s meant __________.
[a] Loose clothes
[b] Without knee breeches
[c] Comfortable clothes
[d] Tunics
Answer:
[b] Without knee breeches

Question 43.
Ideas of simplicity in clothing reflected __________.
[a] Equality
[b] Liberty
[c] Fraternity
[d] Social inferiors
Answer:
[a] Equality

Question 44.
Colour of the cap of Liberty worn by French revolutionaries’was __________.
[a] Red
[b] Green
[c] White
[d] Yellow
Answer:
[a] Red

Question 45.
Victorian image of a frail woman was created by __________.
[a] Corsets
[b] Stays
[c] Short hair
[d] Short skirts
Answer:
[a] Corsets

Question 46.
Stays did not __________.
[a] Restrict body growth
[b] Hamper blood circulation
[c] Weaken spine
[d] Helps girls body to grow
Answer:
[a] Restrict body growth

Question 47.
Traditional feminine clothes were __________.
[a] Long and voluminous
[b] Short and elegant
[c] Long-and graceful
[d] Dull and languid
Answer:
[a] Long and voluminous

Question 48.
Conservatives opposed dress reforms on the ground __________.
[a] Women looked more beautiful
[b] Vulgarity
[c] Grace
[d] Lost their femininity
Answer:
[d] Lost their femininity

Question 49.
Which of the following two items created misunderstanding among the British and Indians?
[a] Turban and hat
[b] Turban and shoes
[c] Khadi and mill made cloth
[d] Wearing and taking off of shoes
Answer:
[b] Turban and shoes

Question 50.
The rational dress society was started in __________
[a] France 1881
[b] USA 1881
[c] Britain 1881
[d] India 1881
Answer:
[c] Britain 1881

Question 51.
The national women’s suffrage association was headed by __________.
[a] Mrs Stanton
[b] Lucy Stone
[c] Amelia Bloomer
[d] Elizabeth II
Answer:
[a] Mrs Stanton

Question 52.
Bloomers were______________
[a] Knickers
[b] Trousers
[c] Tunics
[d] Short skirts
Answer:
[b] Trousers

Question 53.
Radical change in women’s clothing were enabled by __________.
[a] New times
[b] Women’s movement
[c] World wars
[d] Industrial revolution
Answer:
[c] World wars

Question 54.
Which of the following was not a pressure for change?
[a] New materials
[b] World wars
[c] New values
[d] Decolonisation
Answer:
[d] Decolonisation

Question 55.
Which of the following was not a change brought about women’s dress as a result of the world wars?
[a] Skirts and hair became shorter
[b] Women stopped wearing jewellery
[c] Bright colours came into vague
[d] Clothes became plainer and simpler
Answer:
[c] Bright colours came into vague

Question 56.
Plain and austere style ¡n clothes reflected __________.
[a] simplicity
[b] practicability
[c] mobility
[d] professionalism
Answer:
[d] professionalism

Question 57.
In India factor in change in male and female clothing was___________.
[a] Western ideas of equality
[b] Western dress form
[c] Indigenous traditions
[d] National culture
Answer:
[b] Western dress form

Question 58.
The first community to incorporate western styles in dress form In India were__________
[a] Muslims
[b] Dalits
[c] Parsis
[d] Hindus
Answer:
[c] Parsis

Question 59.
Which among the following Indian population were first to adopt western styles?
[a] Men
[b] Women
[c] Children
[d] Bengalis
Answer:
[a] Men

Question 60.
In India dress codes were regulated by __________.
[a] Economic status
[b] Wearing shoes
[c] Education
[d] Wearing gold ornament
Answer:
[b] Wearing shoes

Question 61.
The Shanars were attacked by Nairs for __________.
[a] using umbrellas
[b] caste rules
[c] wearing upper doth
[d] occupation
Answer:
[c] wearing upper doth

Question 62.
Which of the following two items created misunderstanding among the British and Indians?
[a] Turban and hat
[b] Turban and shoes
[c] Khadi and mill made cloth
[d] Wearing and taking off of shoes
Answer:
[b] Turban and shoes

Question 63.
Who among the following defied shoe respect rule?
[a] Lord Dalhousie
[b] Governor General Amherst
[c] Manockjee Cowasjee Entee
[d] Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
[c] Manockjee Cowasjee Entee

Question 64.
Which Indian dress symbolises the synthesis of Hindu Muslim dress form?
[a] Brahmika sari
[b] Chapkan
[c] Nehru jacket
[d] Gandhi’s cap
Answer:
[b] Chapkan

Question 65.
The Chapkan combines the best elements of __________.
[a] Hindu Muslim dress form
[b] Nehru Gandhi dress form
[c] Indian -European dress form
[d] Hindu European dress form
Answer:
[a] Hindu Muslim dress form

Question 66.
Mark the family which played a significant role in the search for a national dress?
[a] Tagore’s
[b] Nehru’s
[c] Gandhi’s
[d] Patel’s
Answer:
[a] Tagore’s

Question 67.
The sari designed by Jnanadanandini.Devi came to be popularly known as __________.
[a] Brahmika
[b] Kota
[c] Chanderi
[d] Kanjeevaram
Answer:
[a] Brahmika

Question 68.
Among which of the following did the pan-Indian style sari not succeed?
[a] Women of Assam
[b] Women of Maharashtra
[c] Women of UP
[d] Non -Brahmos
Answer:
[a] Women of Assam

Question 70.
Movement linked to the politics of clothing __________.
[a] Non-cooperation
[b] Civil disobedience
[c] Quit India
[d] Swadeshi
Answer:
[d] Swadeshi

Question 71.
Who among the following used cloth as a symbolic weapon against the British rule?
[a] M.K Gandhi
[b] Gopal Gandhi
[c] Indira Gandhi
[d] Lord Curzon
Answer:
[a] M.K Gandhi

Question 72.
As a lawyer in Johnnesburg Mahatma Gandhi dressed in __________.
[a] Gujarati dhoti and kurta
[b] Khadi shirt and pyjam
[c] Western suits topped with turban
[d] Three piece suit
Answer:
[c] Western suits topped with turban

Question 73.
Khadi to Mahatma Gandhi was a symbol of __________.
[a] Poverty
[b] Indian ascetic
[c] Indian ascetic
[d] Purity, simplicity and of poverty
Answer:
[d] Purity, simplicity and of poverty

Question 74.
Who among the following did not adopt Khadi?
[a] Sarojini Naidu
[b] Jawaharlal Nehru
[c] Jawaharlal Nehru
[d] Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Answer:
[a] Sarojini Naidu

Question 75.
In the 19th century where did the British insist that Indians take off their shoes __________.
[a] In market places
[b] In court rooms
[c] In their homes
[d] In sacred place
Answer:
[b] In court rooms

Question 76.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi adopt loin cloth and a chadder as his dress?
[a] It was easy to wear
[b] It was not easy to practice
[c] He believed that poor peasants could not afford more than that
[d] It was a political statement of self -respect
Answer:
[c] He believed that poor peasants could not afford more than that

Question 77.
The women in Victorian England were tightly fitting corsets when they slightly grew older __________.
[a] Because the woman cannot move freely
[b] It was considered fashionable
[c] Because it gave shape and support to the figure
[d] Because women were expected to be serious, independent and aggressive
Answer:
[c] Because it gave shape and support to the figure

Question 78.
Which among the following Indian refused to take off his shoes before entering the court room?
[a] Mahatma Gandhi
[b] Manockjee Cowasjee Entee
[c] Dadabhai Naroji
[d] Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
[c] Dadabhai Naroji

Question 79.
Pick the correct reason for the change in women’s fashion during the First World War?
[a] Women’s magazines set new fashions
[b] For the equality of women who fought on the battlefield
[c] For the safety of women who worked in ammunition factories
[d] For the convenience of women who worked on farms
Answer:
[c] For the safety of women who worked in ammunition factories

Question 80.
Which one of the following groups of people did not adopt western wear in India?
[a] Parsi Community
[b] Bengali- Babus
[c] Peasant Community
[d] Dalit converted to Christianity
Answer:
[d] Dalit converted to Christianity

Question 81.
Mahatma Gandhi promoted the wearing of Khadi a handspun cloth because __________.
[a] It was cheaper than imported cloth
[b] It would benefit Indian mill owners
[c] It was assign of self-reliance
[d] He was opposed to silk
Answer:
[b] It would benefit Indian mill owners

Question 82.
Why did Dalit converts in India adopt western style clothing?
[a] It was comfortable
[b] It was cheaper
[c] It was sign of equality and self-respect
[d] I t was fashionable
Answer:
[d] I t was fashionable

Question 83.
Which one of the following statements about women’s fashion in the twentieth century is not true?
[a] Women started wearing trousers and blouses
[b] Women started wearing jewellery
[c] Women started wearing shorter skirts
[d] Women started wearing sober colours
Answer:
[b] Women started wearing jewellery

Question 84.
Dresses in India were defined by __________.
[a] Sumptuary laws
[b] Caste system
[c] Both a and b
[d] None of the above
Answer:
[c] Both a and b

Question 85.
To some Indians western clothes were sign of __________.
[a] progress
[b] modernity
[c] freedom from poverty
[d] Both a and b
Answer:
[d] Both a and b

Question 86.
When was slavery abolished in Travancore? What did it result in?
[a] 1855, frustration among upper castes
[b] 1865, shortage of labour force
[c] 1867, end of caste system
[d] 1895, death among children
Answer:
[a] 1855, frustration among upper castes

Question 87.
Wearing of which two things created misunderstanding and conflict between the British and the Indians?
[a] Turban and shoes
[b] Umbrella and gold ornaments
[c] Saris and dhotis
[d] Gowns and long skirts
Answer:
[a] Turban and shoes

Question 88.
The Pagodas at Mahabalipuram had been constructed by __________.
[a] Cholas
[b] Pallavas
[c] Chalukyas of Kalyani
[d] Pandyas
Answer:
[b] Pallavas

Question 89.
At which among the following sites of Indus Valley Civilisation the rows of distinctive fire altars with provisio of ritual bathing have been found?
[a] Mohen-jo-daro
[b] Harappa
[c] Kalibangan
[d] Lothal
Answer:
[c] Kalibangan

Question 90.
The cotton cloth worn by Indians had a brighter white colour than any cotton found elsewhere. This view was recorded by __________.
[a] Nearchus
[b] Alexander
[c] Pliny
[d] Megasthenes
Answer:
[d] Megasthenes

Question 91.
According to the beliefs of the Pasupata sect, Siva is the Lord of Pasu.Pasu here refers to __________.
[a] Jiva
[b] Lion
[c] Bull
[d] Parvati
Answer:
[a] Jiva

Question 92.
Which is the first narrative feature film in India?
[a] Raja Harishchandra
[b] Pundalik
[c] Alam Ara
[d] Sant Tukaram
Answer:
[b] Pundalik

Question 93.
Which is the first indigenous feature film in India?
[a] Alam Ara
[b] Pundalik
[c] Raja Harishchandra
[d] Sant Tukaram
Answer:
[c] Raja Harishchandra

Question 94.
Which is the first talkie film in India?
[a] Sant Tukaram
[b] Pundalik
[c] Raja Harishchandra
[d] Alam Ara
Answer:
[d] Alam Ara

Question 95.
Which is the first golden jubilee film of India?
[a] Raja Harishchandra
[b] Pundalik
[c] Alam Ara
[d] Sant Tukaram
Answer:
[d] Sant Tukaram

Question 96.
Which year Indian cinema started its journey?
[a] 1896
[b] 1996
[c] 1946
[d] 1856
Answer:
[a] 1896

Question 97.
Which year the Indian cinema celebrated its centenary?
[a] 1896
[b] 1996
[c] 1946
[d] 1856
Answer:
[b] 1996

Question 98.
Who was the first Indian to screen a movie in 1899?
[a] Abdulla Chitre
[b] Thanawalla
[c] Harischandra Bhatwadekar
[d] Hiralal Sen
Answer:
[c] Harischandra Bhatwadekar

Question 99.
Who made India’s full-length feature silent film Raja Harischandra in 1913?
[a] Thanawalla
[b] Harischandra Bhatwadekar
[c] Hiralal Sen
[d] Dhanraj Govind Phalke
Answer:
[d] Dhanraj Govind Phalke

Question 100.
Which year Bengal screened its first feature film?
[a] 1917
[b] 1899
[c] 1919
[d] 1913
Answer:
[a] 1917

Question 101.
The first film was Keechaka Vadha.
[a] Northern
[b] Southern
[c]Western
[d] Eastern
Answer:
[b] Southern

Question 102.
Who made the first Indian talkie Alam Ara?
[a] Dhanraj Govind Phalke
[b] Hiralal Sen
[c] Ardeshir Irani
[d] Thanawalla
Answer:
[d] Thanawalla

Question 103.
Which year the first international film festival was held in india?
[a] 1917
[b] 1899
[c] 1919
[d] 1952
Answer:
[d] 1952

Question 104.
Who was influenced by a movie Life of Christ?
[a] Dhanraj Govind Phalke
[b] Hiralal Sen
[c] Ardeshir Irani
[d] Thanawalla
Answer:
[a] Dhanraj Govind Phalke

Question 105.
When did Cartoon films were pioneered?
[a] 1906
[b] 1907
[c] 1910
[d] 1908
Answer:
[b] 1907

Question 106.
The first colour film was made in __________.
[a] 1907 in England
[b] 1910 in England
[c] 1908 in England
[d] 1906 in England
Answer:
[c] 1908 in England

Question 107.
Who made a film on Hitler in 1940 entitled The Great Dictator?
[a] Greta Garbo
[b] Fairbanks
[c] Mary Pickford
[d] Chaplin
Answer:
[d] Chaplin

Question 108.
__________ divides the script into scenes
[a] Screenplay
[b] Casting
[c] Rehearsing
[d] Directing
Answer:
[a] Screenplay

Question 109.
Who is the captain of the ship in case of a film?
[a] Scriptwriter
[b] Director
[c] Actor
[d] Cameraman
Answer:
[b] Director

Question 110.
The first international film festival was held in __________.
[a] Delhi in 1952
[b] Hyderabad in 1952
[c] Mumbai in 1952
[d] Kolkata in 1952
Answer:
[c] Mumbai in 1952

Question 111.
Who was inspired by Italian classics ‘The Bicycle Thieves’ and ‘Shoe Shine’ to produce’Do Bigha Jameen’?
[a] Thanawalla
[b] Harischandra Bhatwadekar
[c] Hiralal Sen
[d] Bimal Roy
Answer:
[d] Bimal Roy

Question 112.
Which was the first Marathi newspaper which started in 1832 in Mumbai?
[a] Darpan
[b] Kanchan
[c] Amar
[d] Aankh
Answer:
[a] Darpan

Question 113.
The Times of India and Bombay Samachar (Gujarati) started in __________.
[a] Delhi
[b] Mumbai
[c] Bengal
[d] Gujarath
Answer:
[b] Mumbai

Question 114.
In which year the telegraphy service was set up?
[a] 1890
[b] 1870
[c] 1850
[d] 1860
Answer:
[c] 1850

Question 115.
In which year the Congress Party was established in Mumbai __________.
[a] 1947
[b] 1875
[c] 1901
[d] 1885
Answer:
[d] 1885

Question 116.
Who started an industrial unit in Aundh?
[a] Laxmanrao Kirloskar
[b] Save Dada
[c] Bimal Roy
[d] Thanavala
Answer:
[a] Laxmanrao Kirloskar

Question 117.
Which is the first feature film made in India?
[a] Manthan
[b] Raja Harischandra
[c] Ardhasatya
[d] Ankur
Answer:
[b] Raja Harischandra

Question 118.
Who is the pioneer of documentaries?
[a] Greta Garbo
[b] Fairbanks
[c] Robert Flaherty
[d] Mary Pickford
Answer:
[c] Robert Flaherty

Question 119.
What do you mean by naturalist documentary?
[a] These capture current affairs and events around us
[b] A story or incident is used to drive home a point
[c] They deal with reality around us life in slums, villages, metros, factories
[d] These films deal with nature in the raw form
Answer:
[d] These films deal with nature in the raw form

Question 120.
What do you mean by newsreels?
[a] These capture current affairs and events around us
[b] A story or incident is used to drive home a point
[c] They deal with reality around us life in slums, villages, metros, factories
[d] These films deal with nature in the raw form
Answer:
[a] These capture current affairs and events around us

Question 121.
Which type of documentaries indoctrinates the viewers with a particular viewpoint or ideology?
[a] Instructional
[b] Propagandist
[c] Newsreels
[d] Realist
Answer:
[b] Propagandist

Question 122.
Films Division (FD) celebrated its silver jubilee in __________.
[a] 1989
[b] 1992
[c] 1972
[d] 1996
Answer:
[c] 1972

Question 123.
__________ directed by Shankar Ganguly and produced in 1969 is a fascinating science-education film.
[a] Oxygen
[b] Planet
[c] Earth
[d] Life
Answer:
[d] Life

Question 124.
Who has set up Actor Prepares in 2005 __________.
[a] Anupam Kher
[b] Bimal Roy
[c] Save Dada
[d] Laxmanrao Kirloskar
Answer:
[a] Anupam Kher

Question 125.
The distributors normally get a share of __________ per cent from the multiplexes.
[a] 39
[b] 48
[c] 52,2
[d] 50
Answer:
[b] 48

Question 126.
The percentage of the number of tickets sold to the number of seats available across the screens and centres are termed as __________.
[a] Net Collection
[b] Ratings
[c] Occupancy
[d] Weeks of Release
Answer:
[c] Occupancy

Question 127.
The amount collected in rupees (lac) by selling the tickets exclusive of the entire local and State taxes are called as __________
[a] Occupancy
[b] Weeks of Release
[c] Ratings
[d] Net Collection
Answer:
[d] Net Collection

Understanding The Diversity of Indian Society MCQ Questions Part 1

Understanding The Diversity of Indian Society MCQ Questions Part 1

Question 1.
As per 1961 census how many languages and dialects were listed?
[a] 1652
[b]1992
[c] 1692
[d] 1952
Answer:
[a] 1652

Question 2.
As per 2001 census __________ languages belonging to five families of Indo-European, Dravidian, Austro-Asiatic, Tibeto- Burmese and Semito- Hamitic.
[a] 130
[b] 122
[c] 144
[d] 150
Answer:
[b] 122

Question 3.
India has newspapers in how many languages?
[a] 71
[b] 15
[c] 87
[d] 20
Answer:
[c] 87

Question 4.
As per.2001 census 122 languages belonging to which among the following families?
[a] Indo-European
[b] Dravidian
[c] Austro-Asiatic
[d] All the above
Answer:
[d] All the above

Question 5.
How many number of radio programs exists in India __________.
[a] 71
[b] 15
[c] 87
[d] 20
Answer:
[a] 71

Question 6.
Indian nation does films in __________ languages.
[a] 71
[b] 15
[c] 87
[d] 20
Answer:
[b] 15

Question 7.
How many languages does eighth schedule of the Indian constitution recognises?
[a] 18
[b] 15
[c] 22
[d] 13
Answer:
[c] 22

Question 8.
languages as per eighth schedule of the Indian constitution belongs to
[a] Indo-Aryan
[b] Dravidian
[c] Austro-Asiatic
[d] Both a and b
Answer:
[d] Both a and b

Question 9.
According to Prof.V.A. Smith,”From the human point of view India has been often described as an __________.
[a] ethnological Dr racial museum
[b] ethnicity museum
[c] diverse museum
[d] none of these
Answer:
[a] ethnological Dr racial museum

Question 10.
Who says that from the human point of view India has been often described as an ethnological Dr racial museum?
[a] Dr.Richard
[b] Prof.V.A. Smith
[c] Prof.Godwin
[d] Dr.Charles
Answer:
[b] Prof.V.A. Smith

Question 11.
The Buddhism is divided into Hinayana and __________.
[a] Shaktis
[b] Svetambara
[c] Mahayana
[d] Brahmo samaj
Answer:
[c] Mahayana

Question 12.
The Brahmanism is divided into __________.
[a] Shivas
[b] Brahmo samaj
[c] Shaktis
[d] All the above
Answer:
[d] All the above

Question 13.
The Jainism is divided into Digambaras and __________.
[a] Svetambara
[b] Mahayana
[c] Hinayana
[d] Shaktis
Answer:
[a] Svetambara

Question 14.
Vaishnavas belongs to which among the following religion?
[a] Jainism
[b] Brahmanism
[c] Buddhism
[d] Parsis
Answer:
[b] Brahmanism

Question 15.
Mahayana belongs to which among the following religion?
[a] Jainism
[b] Brahmanism
[c] Buddhism
[d] Parsis
Answer:
[c] Buddhism

Question 16.
Svetambara’s belongs to which among the following religion?
[a] Jainism
[b] Brahmanism
[c] Buddhism
[d] Parsis
Answer:
[a] Jainism

Question 17.
Which among the following are the major categories of Indian cuisines?
[a] Sattava
[b] Rajas
[c] Tamas
[d] All the above
Answer:
[d] All the above

Question 18.
Sattava stands for __________.
[a] Balance
[b] Passion
[c] Indulgence
[d] Salvation
Answer:
[a] Balance

Question 19.
Rajas stand for:
[a] Balance
[b] Passion
[c] Indulgence
[d] Salvation
Answer:
[b] Passion

Question 20.
Tamas stands for __________.
[a] Balance
[b] Passion
[c] Indulgence
[d] Salvation
Answer:
[c] Indulgence

Question 21.
In northern and western zones of India __________.
[a] rice
[b] millet
[c] barley
[d] wheat
Answer:
[d] wheat

Question 22.
In south and eastern zones of India __________ consumption is more.
[a] rice
[b] millet
[c] barley
[d] whaet
Answer:
[a] rice

Question 23.
Bhangra belongs to __________.
[a] Jharkhand
[b] Punjab
[c] Karnataka
[d] Assam
Answer:
[b] Punjab

Question 24.
Yakshagana belongs to __________.
[a] Jharkhand
[b] Punjab
[c] Karnataka
[d] Assam
Answer:
[c] Karnataka

Question 25.
Bihu dance form belongs to __________.
[a] Jharkhand
[b] Punjab
[c] Karnataka
[d] Assam
Answer:
[d] Assam

Question 26.
Chhau dance form is of __________.
[a] Jharkhand
[b] Punjab
[c] Karnataka
[d] Assam
Answer:
[a] Jharkhand

Question 27.
Which type of music style is followed in North India?
[a] Ancient
[b] Hindustani
[c] Carnatic
[d] None of these
Answer:
[b] Hindustani

Question 28.
Which type of music style is followed in South India?
[a] Ancient
[b] Hindustani
[c] Carnatic
[d] All the above
Answer:
[c] Carnatic

Question 29.
Sculpture and in India dates back to the Indus valley civilization.
[a] Dance
[b] Music
[c] Stones
[d] Architecture
Answer:
[d] Architecture

Question 30.
__________ is the right and practice of being different in political outlook.
[a] Political diversity
[b] Geoaraohical diversity
[c] Racial diversity
[d] Linguistic diversity
Answer:
[a] Political diversity

Question 31.
Understanding each individual is unique and recognizing our individual differences in known as __________.
[a] Differentiation
[b] Change
[c] Modulation
[d] Diversity
Answer:
[d] Diversity

Question 32.
__________ is the combination of physical characteristics and human characteristics.
[a] Political diversity
[b] Geographical diversity
[c] Racial diversity
[d] Linguistic diversity
Answer:
[b] Geographical diversity

Question 33.
Among the below given places where one can find Indian painting?
[a] Ajanta
[b] Ellora
[c] Both a and b
[d] Mangalore
Answer:
[c] Both a and b

Question 34.
As per which year’s census India’s population is 1,210,193,422?
[a] 2014
[b]2012
[c] 2015
[d] 2011
Answer:
[d] 2011

Question 35.
India stands in population.
[a] Second
[b] First
[c] Third
[d] Fourth
Answer:
[a] Second

Question 36.
Which country stands first in population?
[a] India
[b] China
[c] Pakistan
[d] Africa
Answer:
[b] China

Question 37.
As per 2001 Census what is the percentage of Hindus in India?
[a] 1.84
[b] 2.30
[c] 80.50
[d] 13.40
Answer:
[c] 80.50

Question 38.
As per 2001 Census what is the percentage of Muslims in India?
[a] 1.84
[b] 2.30
[c] 80.50
[d] 13.40
Answer:
[d] 13.40

Question 39.
As per 2001 Census what is the percentage of Sikhs in India?
[a] 1.84
[b] 2.30
[c] 80.50
[d] 13.40
Answer:
[a] 1.84

Question 40.
As per 2001 Census what is the percentage of Christians in India?
[a] 1.84
[b] 2.30
[c] 80.50
[d] 13.40
Answer:
[b] 2.30

Question 41.
The most ancient sacred text of the Hindu religion was written in __________.
[a] Hindi
[b] Kannada
[c] Sanskrit
[d] Tamil
Answer:
[c] Sanskrit

Question 42.
Hinduism is the __________ largest religion in the world.
[a] First
[b] Second
[c] Fourth
[d] Third
Answer:
[d] Third

Question 43.
Hinduism is referred as __________.
[a] Sanatana Dharma
[b] Purathana Dharma
[c] Mukthi Dharma
[d] Samajika Dharma
Answer:
[a] Sanatana Dharma

Question 44.
What does Sanatana Dharma mean?
[a] Resurrection
[b] Eternal life
[c] Rebirth
[d] Wisdom
Answer:
[b] Eternal life

Question 45.
Which among the following is considered as purusharthas?
[a] Dharma
[b] Artha and Kama
[c] Moksha
[d] All the above
Answer:
[d] All the above

Question 46.
Responsibility towards ethical values, conduct, virtue, way of living, moral rights and duties is known as __________.
[a] Dharma
[b] Artha
[c] Moksha
[d] Kama
Answer:
[a] Dharma

Question 47.
Responsibility of work, duty, care of properties, livelihood is known as __________.
[a] Dharma
[b] Artha
[c] Moksha
[d] Kama
Answer:
[b] Artha

Question 48.
Liberation, salvation and self-realisation is termed as __________.
[a] Dharma
[b] Artha
[c] Moksha
[d] Kama
Answer:
[c] Moksha

Question 49.
Emotions, spread of lineage, love and affection is termed as __________.
[a] Dharma
[b] Artha
[c] Moksha
[d] Kama
Answer:
[d] Kama

Question 50.
Starting any ritual and new task with __________ is a hall mark of Hindus.
[a] Puja
[b] Songs
[c] Yoga
[d] Meditation
Answer:
[a] Puja

Question 51.
Which among the following is the part of any puja?
[a] Coconut breaking
[b] Use of flowers, beetal leaves
[c] Using Kumkum
[d] All the above
Answer:
[d] All the above

Question 52.
What does om kara mean?
[a] One constant
[b] Salvation
[c] God is strength
[d] Power
Answer:
[a] One constant

Question 53.
What is the name of Sikh guru?
[a] Fhakira
[b] Nanak
[c] Saibaba
[d] Ramkrishna
Answer:
[b] Nanak

Question 54.
The songs rendered by Sikhs are known as __________.
[a] Keerthans
[b] Hymns
[c] Gurbani
[d] Bajans
Answer:
[c] Gurbani

Question 55.
Singing of Gurbani is called as __________.
[a] Prarthan
[b] Bajan
[c] Naman
[d] Shabad Kirtan
Answer:
[d] Shabad Kirtan

Question 56.
Shabad Kirtan is established by __________.
[a] Guru Nanak
[b] Param hams
[c] Sharif
[d] Tulsiram
Answer:
[a] Guru Nanak

Question 57.
Which one is the sacred book of Sikhs?
[a] Guru Sahib
[b] Guru Granth Sahib
[c] Nanak Sahib
[d] Shabad Kirtan Granth
Answer:
[b] Guru Granth Sahib

Question 58.
Shabad Kirtan is a type of __________.
[a] Music
[b] Dance
[c] Meditation
[d] Dohe
Answer:
[c] Meditation

Question 59.
Guru Granth Sahib is the sacred book of Sikhs is in the form of __________.
[a] music
[b] dance
[c] lesson
[d] Poetry and rhyme
Answer:
[d] Poetry and rhyme

Question 60.
Sikh male names end with __________.
[a] Singh
[b] Kaur
[c] Sardar
[d] Guru
Answer:
[a] Singh

Question 61.
What does Singh mean?
[a] Elephant
[b] Lion
[c] Tiger
[d] Leopard
Answer:
[b] Lion

Question 62.
Sikh rrsaie names end with __________.
[a] Ben
[b] Singani
[c] Kaur
[d] Begam
Answer:
[c] Kaur

Question 64.
What is the meaning of Kes among five k’s which Sikh boys wear?
[a] Uncut hair
[b] Small wollen comb
[c] Metal bracelet
[d] Sword
Answer:
[a] Uncut hair

Question 65.
What does Kanghi mean?
[a] Uncut hair
[b] Small wollen comb
[c] Metal bracelet
[d] Sword
Answer:
[b] Small wollen comb

Question 66.
What is the meaning of Kade?
[a] Uncut hair
[b] Small wollen comb
[c] Metai bracelet
[d] Sword
Answer:
[c] Metai bracelet

Question 67.
What is the meaning of Kirpan among five k’s which Sikh boys wear?
[a] Uncut hair
[b] Small woollen comb
[c] Metal bracelet
[d] Sword
Answer:
[d] Sword

Question 68.
What is the meaning of Kachhera among five k’s which Sikh boys wear?
[a] Special undergarment
[b] Small woollen comb
[c] Metal bracelet
[d] Sword
Answer:
[a] Special undergarment

Question 69.
Among the given places where does Jews live in India?
[a] Mattancherry
[b] Mumbai
[c] Both a and b
[d] Delhi
Answer:
[c] Both a and b

Question 70.
Among the given places where does Sikhs are found in large number?
[a] Punjab
[b] Haryana
[c] Delhi
[d] All the above
Answer:
[d] All the above

Question 71.
What is the aim of Jain life?
[a] To achieve liberation of soul
[b] To achieve eternity of life
[c] To love one another
[d] To gain salvation
Answer:
[a] To achieve liberation of soul

Question 72.
What do Jains follow in theory and practice?
[a] Faith
[b] Non-violence
[c] Love
[d] Peacefulness
Answer:
[b] Non-violence

Question 73.
Who are called as spiritual concurers?
[a] Sikhs
[b] Parsis
[c] Jains
[d] Jews
Answer:
[c] Jains

Question 74.
The 24 spiritual leaders of Jains are popularly known as __________.
[a]Dhigambaras
[b] Jainankaras
[c] Svethambaras
[d] Theerthankaras
Answer:
[d] Theerthankaras

Question 75.
Who is the lasttheerthankara?
[a] Mahaveera
[b] Balarama
[c] Siddartha
[d] Paramahamsa
Answer:
[a] Mahaveera

Question 76.
Among the following who is the contemporary of Buddha?
[a] Jesus
[b] Mahaveera
[c] Guru Nanak
[d] Paramahamsa
Answer:
[b] Mahaveera

Question 77.
Buddhism word comes from __________.
[a] Bud
[b] Bodhi
[c] Budhi
[d] Bodana
Answer:
[c] Budhi

Question 78.
What does Budhi mean?
[a] To protect
[b] To inspire
[c] To be peace maker and peace lover
[d] To awaken
Answer:
[d] To awaken

Question 79.
What was Bhudhas birth name?
[a] Siddhartha Gouthama
[b] Vijaya Siddhartha
[c] Siddhartha Chandra
[d] Arasu Gouthama
Answer:
[a] Siddhartha Gouthama

Question 80.
At what age Siddhartha Gouthama was awakened?
[a] 23
[b] 35
[c] 25
[d] 30
Answer:
[b] 35

Question 81.
The paintings in the Ajanta and Ellora caves are indicative of the development of art under the __________.
[a] Pallavas
[b] Pandyas
[c] Chalukyas
[d] Rashtrakutas
Answer:
[c] Chalukyas

Question 82.
In which of the following festivals are boat races a special feature?
[a] Navrathri
[b] Rongali Bihu
[c] Pongal
[d] Onam
Answer:
[d] Onam

Question 83.
‘Madhubani’ a style of folk paintings, is popular in which of the following states in India?
[a] Bihar
[b] Maharashtra
[c] Haryana
[d] Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
[a] Bihar

Question 84.
Dandia is a popular dance of __________.
[a] Bihar
[b] Gujarat
[c] Haryana
[d] Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
[b] Gujarat

Question 85.
Apart from India, in which of the following two countries Tamil is an official language?
[a] Malaysia and Indonesia
[b] Mauritius and Malaysia
[c] Srilankha and Singapore
[d] Singapore and Africa
Answer:
[c] Srilankha and Singapore

Question 86.
Historic Chadragiri fort is located in which of the following state?
[a] Maharashtra
[b] Karnataka
[c] Tamilnadu
[d] Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
[d] Andhra Pradesh

Question 87.
Shabarimala is located in which of the following states?
[a] Kerala
[b] Karnataka
[c] Tamilnadu
[d] Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
[a] Kerala

Question 88.
The famous “Ganga Sagar Mela” an annual fair is held in which state of India?
[a] Uttar Pradesh
[b] West Bengal
[c] Bihar
[d] Jharkhand
Answer:
[b] West Bengal

Question 89.
Ramman is a religious festival and ritual theatre of __________.
[a] Bihar
[b] Uttar Pradesh
[c] Uttarkhand
[d] Maharashtra
Answer:
[c] Uttarkhand

Question 90.
The famous Nabakalebara festival belongs to which of the following states?
[a] Rajasthan
[b] Maharashtra
[c] West Bengal
[d] Odisha
Answer:
[d] Odisha

Question 91.
Which among the following temples of India is known as Black Pagoda?
[a] Sun Temple, Konark
[b] Bhrihadeshwara Temple, Tanjore
[c] Meenakshi Temple, Mathurai
[d] Lord Jagganatha Temple, Puri
Answer:
[a] Sun Temple, Konark

Question 92.
Hanukkh the festival of light is associated with which one of the following religions?
[a] Hindu
[b] Jewish
[c] Jain
[d] Sikh
Answer:
[b] Jewish

Question 93.
Which is the earliest known civilization of India?
[a] Indus Valley
[b] Ganga Valley
[c] Mahanadi Valley
[d] Brahmaputra Valley
Answer:
[a] Indus Valley

Question 94.
Which is the largest tribe in India?
[a] Santhal
[b] Bhils
[c] Gond
[d] Munda
Answer:
[c] Gond

Question 95.
Which is the state with highest proportion of scheduled castes as per 2001 census?
[a] Rajasthan
[b] Maharashtra
[c] West Bengal
[d] Punjab
Answer:
[d] Punjab

Question 96.
Gouthama Budha was born in __________.
[a] 563 B.C
[b] 439 B.C
[c] 298 B.C
[d] 450 B.C
Answer:
[a] 563 B.C

Question 97.
Gautama Buddha was born at __________.
[a] Varanasi
[b] Lumbini
[c] Ayodya
[d] Gaya
Answer:
[b] Lumbini

Question 98.
The religious book of Buddhism was written in __________.
[a] Bengali
[b] Sanskrit
[c] Pali
[d] Hindi
Answer:
[c] Pali

Question 99.
Who compiled Vinaya Pitaka?
[a] Vasubandhu
[b] Ananda
[c] Sabakami
[d] Upali
Answer:
[d] Upali

Question 100.
What was the symbol of death of Gauthama Buddha?
[a] Lion
[b] Stupa
[c] Vihara
[d] Chaitya
Answer:
[b] Stupa

Question 101.
Indians are very particular about in marriages.
[a] Kula
[b] Spirituality
[c] Gotra
[d] Rituals
Answer:
[c] Gotra

Question 102.
In India the minimum age for girl to marry as per law is __________.
[a] 21
[b] 24
[c] 19
[d] 18
Answer:
[d] 18

Question 103.
In India the minimum age for boy to marry as per law is __________.
[a] 21
[b] 24
[c] 19
[d] 18
Answer:
[a] 21

Question 104.
Re-marriage for widows and widower is now increasing and about for those around 30-45 years.
[a] 49%
[b] 70%
[c] 30%
[d] 50%
Answer:
[b] 70%

Question 105.
Re-marriage for widows and widower is now increasing and about for those above 45 years.
[a] 49%
[b] 70%
[c] 30%
[d] 50%
Answer:
[c] 30%

Question 106.
Which religion follows Kanyadana, Panigrahana, Saptapadi and Temple visits as important marriage rituals?
[a] Parsis
[b] Sikh
[c] Buddhism
[d] Hindu
Answer:
[d] Hindu

Question 107.
Which religion follows Anand Keraji as important marriage rituals?
[a] Parsis
[b] Sikh
[c] Bhudism
[d] Hindu
Answer:
[b] Sikh

Question 108.
__________ is the ceremony where in couple walk around the holy book ‘Guru Granth Sahib’ four times.
[a] Saptapadi
[b] Kanyadana
[c] Anand Keraji
[d] Panigrahana
Answer:
[c] Anand Keraji

Question 109.
Anand Keraji is the ceremony where in couple walk around the holy book four times.
[a] Guru Sahib
[b] Guru Granth Sahib
[c] Nanak Sahib
[d] Shabad Kirtan Granth
Answer:
[b] Guru Granth Sahib

Question 110.
Anand Keraji is the ceremony where in couple walk around the holy book ‘Guru Granth Sahib’ times.
[a] Two
[b] Three
[c] Four
[d] Six
Answer:
[c] Four

Question 111.
Who follow Middle East practise of’Nikha’?
[a] Parsis
[b] Sikh
[c] Buddhism
[d] Muslim
Answer:
[d] Muslim

Question 112.
Christians follow the traditions of European churches and that is practiced more in __________.
[a] Goa
[b] Kerala
[c] Mangalore
[d] Mumbai
Answer:
[a] Goa

Question 113.
What word is used to greet in Tamil?
[a] Namaskaram
[b] Vanakkam
[c] Swagatham
[d] Namaskara
Answer:
[b] Vanakkam

Question 114.
What word is used to greet in Malayalam?
[a] Namaskaram
[b] Vanakkam
[c] Swagatham
[d] Namaskara
Answer:
[a] Namaskaram

Question 115.
Swagatham as a greeting word is used in __________.
[a] Tamil
[b] Telgu
[c] Marati
[d] Malayalam
Answer:
[c] Marati

Question 116.
How do Punjabis greet each other?
[a] Jai Shri Krishna
[b] Jai Jagannath
[c] Jai Sinendra
[d] Sat Sri Akal
Answer:
[d] Sat Sri Akal

Question 117.
How does Gujratis greet each other?
[a] Jai Shri Krishna
[b] Jai Jagannath
[c] Jai Sinendra
[d] Sat Sri Akal
Answer:
[a] Jai Shri Krishna

Question 118.
How does Orissis greet each other?
[a] Jai Shri Krishna
[b] jai Jagannath
[c] Jai Sinendra
[d] Sat Sri Akal
Answer:
[b] jai Jagannath

Question 119.
How does Jains greet each other?
[a] Jai Shri Krishna
[b] Jai Jagannath
[c] Jai Sinendra
[d] Sat Sri Akal
Answer:
[c] Jai Sinendra

Question 120.
Which religion will use Ram Ram as greeting?
[a] Orissa
[b] Gujrat
[c] Jain
[d] Punjab
Answer:
[d] Punjab

Question 121.
On which date the Independence Day is celebrated all over India?
[a] 15th August
[b] 26th January
[c] 2nd October
[d] 19th May
Answer:
[a] 15th August

Question 122.
Republic day is celebrated on __________.
[a] 15th August
[b] 26th January
[c] 2nd October
[d] 19th May
Answer:
[b] 26th January

Question 123.
On __________ Gandhi Jayanthi is celebrated.
[a] 15th August
[b] 26th January
[c] 2nd October
[d] 19th May
Answer:
[c] 2nd October

Question 124.
Which festival is observed as mourning day in Muslim community?
[a] Bakri Eid
[b] Milad Un Nabi
[c] Shab E-Baraat
[d] Muharram
Answer:
[d] Muharram

Question 125.
Among Christians which festival is observed as mourning?
[a] Good Friday
[b] Sacred heart of Jesus
[c] Pentacost
[d] Corpus cristi
Answer:
[a] Good Friday

Question 126.
In which state is the religious festival Ganesh Chaturti is celebrated with gusto?
[a] Karnataka
[b] Maharashtra
[c] Gujrat
[d] Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
[a] Karnataka

Income from House Property Questions and Answers

Income from House Property Questions and Answers

SECTION – A

Question 1.
Define Property.
Answer:
According to Sec 22 property is defined as:

  • Any building or land appurtenant there to
  • Of which the assessee is the owner
  • And which is not used for purpose of assessee business or profession.

Question 2.
What is disputed ownership?
Answer:
If title of ownership in disputed in court of law, decision as to who is owner rests with Income Tax Department. Generally recipient of rental Income or person who is in possession of property as owner is treated as owner.

Question 3.
What do you mean by fully exempted Income.
Answer:
→ Income from farm house

→ Annual value of one palace of ex Indian ruler

→ Income from property owned by

  • Local authority
  • Trade union
  • Scientific research association
  • Charitable trust
  • University or education institution existing for education purpose
  • hospital or medical institution existing for philanthropic purpose

→ Income from self occupied house

→ Income from property used for assesses own business or profession.

→ Deductible from gross total income: Income of cooperation society:

  • From letting godowns, ware house for storage of commodities meant for sale.
  • From house property if gross total income not exceed 20,000 and society is not housing society, transport society, Urban consumer cosoperative society, manufacturing goods with aid of power.

Question 4.
What are the exceptions to the general rule that income from house property is taxable under head “income from house property”?
Answer:
The following are exceptions to general rule that income from house property is taxable under head income from house property.

  • Building or staff quarters let to employees and others.
  • Building let to authorities for locating banks, post office, police station etc.
  • Composite letting of building with other assets
  • Paying guest accommodation.

Question 5.
How to annual charge treated in income from House Property?
Answer:
As per Sec. 24(1) Annual charge is allowed as a deduction from net annual value.

Question 6.
What do you mean by composite rent?
Answer:
When a building is let out to a person along with other facilities for Example electricity, aircooler, water pump, the rent collected is called composite rent and the rent of the building can be separated from rent of the such facilities.

Question 7.
What do you mean standard rent?
Answer:
Where Rent Control Act is applicable, the rent fixed by the Act is called Standard Rent. In the case the gross annual vaiue will be the actual value received or standard rent, whichever is higher.

Question 8.
What do you mean by de-facto rent?
Answer:
De-facto rent means the amount arrived at after making adjustments in actual rent in respect to tenants obligations undertaken by the owner and owners obligations undertaken by the tenant.

Question 9.
What is expected rent?
Answer:
Rent obtain after deducting the expenses incurred by the owner of the building towards certain amenities provided to the tenants, such as lift maintenance, staircase lighting, garden maintenance, et. from actual rent receivable.

Question 10.
Write short note on the following: Municipal value of property.
Answer:
The municipal corporation or committee conducts periodical survey of the house properties in their local limits for the purpose of levying local taxes on the basis of the survey conducted the value (rental) are fixed which servers as the basis for levying tax. What are the value was fixed for the properties is called municipal value of property.

Question 11.
What is annual value?
Answer:
The annual value of a house property let out shall be deemed to be the sum for which the property might reasonably be expected to be let from year to year.

Question 12.
Answer:
The gross annual value is the annual value which will be

  • de-facto rent or
  • Municipal value or
  • Fair rental value, whichever is higher. When property is subject to standard rent then gross annual value will be de-facto rent or standard rent whichever is higher.

Question 13.
What is deemed owner u/s 23(1).
Answer:
An individual who is not the real owner of property, but he is treated or deemed to be a owner of property for Income tax purpose is called as deemed owner.

Question 14.
What do you mean by municipal taxes?
Answer:
It is the tax levied by the Municipal Authority on the Municipal Value of the house property. Such municipal taxes paid by the owner will be allowed as deduction under Sec. 23.

Question 15.
What is annual value?
Answer:
Means period commencing on date of borrowing and ending on 31st of March immediately prior to date of completion of construction or date of acquisition or date of repayment of loan, whichever is less.

Question 16.
Explain gross annual value of let out properties.
Answer:
Gross annual value is reasonable expected rent of a property. If the actual rent received or receivable is more than the expected rent than the actual rent received or receivable is taken as gross annual value. If the property is vacant and due to vacancy the actual rent received or receivable is less than the expected rent than actual rent received or receivable is taken as gross annual value.

Question 17.
What is deduction allowable for pre-construction interest in the case of Income from House property?
Answer:
Deduction allowable for pre construction interest, in the case of income from H.P. is allowable as deduction u/s 24 in five equal annual installments. This is a deduction allowed as interest on loan for the period prior to the previous year, in which the house is completed.

Question 18.
Mention any two incomes from house property but taxable under a different head of income.
Answer:
The two incomes from house property but taxable under a different head of income are:
Rent paid by the paying guest, Rental income from subletting, if composite rent is not separable.

Question 19.
How do you treat the unrealised rent of the past recovered in the current previous year?
Answer:
Unrealized rent allowed in the earlier previous year but recovered during the previous year is taxable under the head income from house property. Further, it is taxable even if house is not owned by the assessee in the year of recovery. Any legal expenses incurred for the recovery of unreaiized rent is not deductible.

SECTION – B

Question 1.
Computation of Taxable Income from let out house Property.

Question 2.
What is unrealised rent? Enumerate the rules for deducing unrealised rent U/S 25 (1) (x).
Answer:
→ If the rent is not yet realised it is known as unrealised rent.

→ If following conditions are fulfilled, the amount of unrealised rent shall be deducted out of actual rent received.

  • That the tenancy is bonafide
  • That the tenant has vacated the house or steps have been taken to get the house vacated
  • The tenant is not occupying any other house owned by the assessee
  • That all efforts to realise the rent have failed or the assessing officer is satisfied that there is no way to recover the rent and
  • Unrealised rent of earlier years is not deductible.

→ Treatment of Unrealised Rent: Amount of Unrealised Rent is deducted out of actual rent received for calculating Annual Rental Value if conditions as laid down are fulfilled.

→ Treatment of Unrealised rent recovered: Deemed as income of the year in which recovered.

Practical Problems:

Question 1.
A House Property whose municipal valuation is 52,000 has been let out at rate of 5,000 per month. Local taxes paid in respect of property amounted to 6,000 out of which land lord has paid 4,000 Balance of 2,000 being are met by tenant. Compute Annual Value of House property.
Solution:

Particulars
Municipal value = OR
Actual rent = (5,000 x 12) (w.e.h)
Gross Annual Value
Less: Municipal tax paid by owner
Annual value
52,000
60,000
 

60,000
4,000
56,000

Question 2.
Mr. Shashank is the owner of a house. The particulars of which are given below:
Fair rent 90,000; House let out at 10,000 per month; Municipal tax paid by Shashank 10,000 (10% of municipal value). Determine the annual value of the house if the house is vacant or a) one month b) three months.
Solution:

Particulars Case A Case B
Fair Rent or
Actual Rent (10,000 x 12) (w.e.h)
Less: Vacancy period
Gross Annual Value
Less: Municipal tax paid
Net Annual Value
90,000
1,20,000
90,000
1,20,000
1,20,000
10,000
1,20,000
30,000
1,10,000
10,000
90,000
10,000
1,00,000 80,000

Question 3.
From the following information compute net annual value of house property of Mr. Ganesh for the A.Y. 2020-21.
Fair retnal value – 1,80,000 p.a.
Standard rent – 1,62,000 p.a.
Rent received – 16,500 p.m.
Unrealised rent for the year 2019-20 – 24,750
Loss due to vacancy -16,500
Municipal tax paid by owners – 21,600 being 10% of municipal value.

Question 4.
Determine the annual value of house property from the following details:
(a) Municipal value – 45,000
(b) Standard rent – 50,000
(c) Fair rent – 55,000
(d) Actual rent – 56,000
(e) Municipal tax 10% of municipal value
(d) Municipal tax paid in the previous year – 3,000

Question 5.
Mr. Praveen is owner of a house property in Mysore. The construction of the house was completed on 18th July 2018. He took a loan of 8,75,000 from Canara Bank on 1st Nov. 2016 at 11% p.a. The loan was outstanding during the year 2019-20 to the extent of 5,00,000. From the following information calculate his income from house property for the A.Y. 2020-21.
(a) Municipal value 1,44,000 p.a.
(b) Fair rental value 1,80,000 p.a.
(c) Standard rent 1,20,000 p.a.
(d) Rent received per month rs. 18,000
(e) Municipal tax paid is 10% of M.V. (25% paid by tenent)
(f) Loss due to vacancy 27,000
(g) Unrealised rent for the year 2019-20 10,000.
(h) Unrealised rent of 2018-19 was recovered during 2019-20 16,000

Question 6.
Determine the Net Annual Value House property for the A.Y. 2020-21
Particulars
Municipal value – 1,50,000
Fair rent – 1,70,000
Standard rent – 1,30,000
Actual rent p.m. – 15,000
Unrealised rent – 18,000
House vacancy period – 1 month
Municipal tax paid – 15,000

Question 7.
From the following information compute Net Annual Value of House Property for the A.Y. 2020-21.
Municipal value – 1,00,000
Fair Rental value – 1,80,000
Let out (per month) – 16,000
Standard Rent – 1,20,000
Unrealised rent for one month
Municipal tax paid by owner of House Property – 20,000
Municipal tax paid by tenant – 10,000

Question 8.
Roopa is the owner of the following house properties, Find out the net annual value for the assessment year 2020-21.

Particulars A B C
a) Municipal value 1,80,000 1,80,000 3,60,000
b) Fair rental value 1,92,000 1,68,000 3,96,000
c) Standard rent 2,04,000 2,40,000 3,00,000
d) Actual rent (P.A.) 2,16,000 1,92,000 2,88,000
e) Municipal tax paid 12,000 24,000
f) Municipal tax due 12,000 24,000

Question 9.
Compute the annual value from the following information:
(a) Municipal rental value – 50,000
(b) Fair rental value – 72,000
(c) Let out – 8,000 per month
(d) Standard rental value – 60,000
(e) Municipal tax paid in P.Y.
P.Y. 2018-19 – 10,000
P.Y. 2019-20 – 10,000

Question 10.
Calculate the Gross Annual Value from the following details:
Municipal value – 61,000
Fair rentral value – 66,000
Standard rent – 59,000
Annual rent – 57,000
Vacancy period 1 1/2 months.

Question 11.
Mr. Ravi owns a flat which is assessed by local authority with Annual Value of 1,80,000. The flat was let out for 15,000 p.m.
However the tenant vacated the property on 30.9.19. For month of Oct 16 to Nov. 17 the flat was vacant.
In Dec. 2016 a new tenant occupied at rent of 16,000 p.m. Municipal tax paid 20,000 Compute Annual Value for AY.

Question 12.
Mrs. Savitha started construction of her house on 07.06.2017 and took housing loan of 6,00,000 at 12% per annum on 01.07.2016. The construction of house was completed on 22.06.2017 and was let out from 01.07.2019 on a monthly rent of 7,500.
You are required to calculate the amount of interest that can be claimed as deduction U/s 24 assuming that entire amount of loan was outstanding during the PY 2019-20.

Question 13.
Mr. Syed started the construction of house on 1.6.2016 and took a loan of 3,00,000 at 15% p.a. He took another loan of 9,00,000 at 18% p.a. on 1.4.2019. The construction was completed on 30.11.2019 and was self occupied from 1.12.2019.
Compute his income from House Property for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 14.
Mr Sandeep started construction of his house on 1-6-2016 and took a loan of 3,00,000 @ 15% p.a He took another loan of 5,00,000 @ 15% p.a on 1-4-2017 The construction was completed on 30-11¬2019 and was self occupied for resident from 1-12-2019 Compute his income from property for the assessment year 2020-21.

Question 15.
Smt. Jaya is the owner of a house at Agra, particulars in respect of which for the year ended 31st March, 2020 are as below:
a) Actual rent received 10,000
b) Municipal valuation 8,000
c) Total municipal tax 2,500
d) Municipal tax paid by Smt. Jaya 1,250
e) Municipal tax paid by the tenant 1,250
f) Interest paid during PY on loan taken for renewing the house 500
g) Repair charges 3,000
Compute her income from House Property for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 16.
Mr. X is the owner of a house property in Delhi.
The loan of 8,00,000 was borrowed on 1.11-2014 at 8% per annum Interest from Oriental Bank of Commerce for construction of this house. The construction was completed on 20.4.2017 Mr. X repaid 50,000 towards principal on 1.4.2018. After this date no amount was repaid and entire balance was outstanding.
This house has been let out since 1.1.2019 on a rent of ‘ 9,000 per month. From 1.1.2019 Mr. X utilised one-third portion of this house for his own residence and two-third portion has been let on a rent of ‘ 6,000 per month.
Mr. X paid the following towards this house:
i) Repairs 2,000
ii) Land revenue 1,000
iii) Collection charges 1,500
iv) Municipal tax 3,000
Compute the taxable income from house property for the assessment year 2020-21.

Question 17.
Mr. Shankar is the owner of three house Properties in Bangalore and I let-out all the houses throughout the year.

Particulars House-A House-B House-C
Fair Rent 1,80,000 1,50,000 1,20,000
Municipal valuation 1,50,000 2,00,000 1,00,000
Let out (per month) 20,000 15,000 25,000
Use by tenant Residential Office Residential
Repair charges 10,000 40,000
Collection charges 20,000 5,000
Interest on loan:
a) for construction 1,00,000
b) For marriage of daughter 60,000
c) For repairs 10,000

Municipal tax is 10% of Municipal valuation. Municipal tax of House – A was paid by owner but Municipal tax of house – B was not paid upto 31st March 2020 and Municipal tax of House – C was paid by tenant. The House – C was remained vacant for 2 months.

Compute Income from House Property for the A.Y. 2020-21 by making assumption housing loan in respect of house A and C was taken after 1.4.1999.

Question 18.
Mr. Shankar owns three houses in K.G.F. from the following particulars compute his taxable income from house property for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 19.
Mr. Girish is the owner of following house property in Mysore.
Particulars in respect of which for the year ended 31.3.2020 are as follows: Compute his income from the house property the AY 2020-21.

Question 20.
Mr. Sukruth is the owner of four houses in Bangalore. He gives the following particulars of these properties.

Question 21.
Mr. Jayaswamy owns a big house (erection completed on July 31st 2015). The house has three independent units. Unit-1 (50% of the floor area) is let out for residential purpose on a monthly rent of 8,200. Unit – 1 remained vacant for one month when it is not put to any use. A sum of 700 could not be collected from the tenant Unit – 2 (25% of the floor area) is used by him for the purpose of his profession, whild Unit – 3 (the remaining 25%) is utilised for the purpose of his residence. The other particulars of the house are as follows :
Municipal valuation : 80,000
Fair rent : 90,000
Standard rent under the Rent Control. Act : 1,00,000
Muncipal taxes : 12,000
Repairs : 14,000
Ground rent : 6,400
Annual charge created under the will by his father in favour of his sister : 10,000.
He has borrowed 4,00,000@ the rate of 10% from SBI for the construction of this house on 1st Aug. 2010 and nothing is repaid so far.
His income from profession is 1,05,000 (without debiting house rent and other incidental expenditure including admissible depreciation on the portion of the house used for profession : 9,000)
Determine his Taxable Income from House Property for the previous year 2019-20.

Question 22.
Akhila own three houses in Bangalore. The municipal valuations of which are 22,000, 36,000 and 31,0000 respectively. The following are further details about three houses.
1. The first house built in 2000 has been let out on a monthly rent of 3,500. The expenses in connection with this house are land revenue 100, Fire insurance premium 800, interest on loan for construction of the house 4,000, Municipal taxes 1,500. The house remained vacant for two months, Unrealised rent of the current year amounts to 7,000. The assessing officer has been satisfied about this unrealised rent.

2. The second house was built in 1984 and it is used for owners residential purposes. In connection with this house 800 was spent on repairs, 200 was paid as fire insurance premium. The house remained vacant for three months as the owner had to stay in Chennai in a rented house in connection with her profession.

3. The construction of third house was completed on 30 June 2010 and from 1st July 2016 it was letout for residential purposes on a rent of 2,500 p.,m. Municipal tax 3,200 and interest on loan 16,000 were paid during the year 2019-20. Compute her income from house property for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 23.
Dr. Trivedi constructed a big house in July 2005, of which municipal valuation is 80,000 per annum. While its standard rent under Rent Control Act ‘ 90,000 per annum.
The house was used in the following manner during the previous year.
a) 25% portion for self residence
b) 25% portion for own business
c) 50% portion let out for residential purpose for rent 5,000 per month Other particulars of the house are as follows:
i) Municipal tax 12,800 (actual payment during the previous year 2019-20 9,000)
ii) Repairs 4,500
iii) Fire insurance premium 2,000
He has taken a loan from housing board to construct the house at 12% p.a. 2 lakh. Interest was due 24,000 during the previous year out of which 20,000 was paid.
Compute income from house property for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 24.
Mr. Anand is the owner of three houses,in Bangalore, the particulars of which are given below:

Question 25.
Smt. Veena is the owner of a house property in Bengaluru completely let out for residential purpose consisting of 2 flats of different sizes. They are let out at 5,000 p.m. and 10,000 p.m. respectively. The municipal value of the house is 1,50,000. The rate of municipal tax is 10% which was paid by her. The other particulars of the house are as under:
a) The construction of the house was completed on 10.01.2015
b) A loan of 1,00,000 was taken on 1.4.2012 at 12% p.a.
c) The second flat remained vacant for 2 months during the previous year 2019-20.
d) The loan was fully repaid on 31.12.2019
e) The average outstanding loan amount for the period from 1.4.2019 to 31.12.2019 was 20,000.
Determine the income from house property of Smt. Veena for the AY 2020-21.

Question 26.
Smt. Kathyayini owns 3 house properties. House-I and House-II are used for her residential purposes and House-III is let out on a monthly rent of 8,000. Following are the other particulars of these house properties:

Question 27.
Mr. Mukesh is owner of three houses in Bangalore.

Question 28.
From the following particulars of house properties of Vishwanth. Compute his income from house property for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 29.
Mr. Suryakantha has three houses in Mandya particulars of which

Particulars House I House II House III
Use of house Let out Let out S.O.P.
Standard rental value 1,50,000 2,00,000
Municipal rental value 1,00,000 3,00,000 3,00,000
Fair rental value 1,80,000 1,80,000 3,50,000
Actual rent per month 15,000 20,000
Municipal tax paid 10% of 10% of 10% of
Repairs Municipal value Municipal Value Municipal Value

Surya borrows 3,00,000 at 20% p.a. for construction of House III (Date of borrowing: 1.6.2012 date of repayment of loan 10.5.2020) construction of all the houses is completed in May 2017.
Determine the taxable income of Suryakantha under the head income from House Property for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 30.
Mr. Harish is the owner of the following three House properties in Mysore. The details relating to which are as follows:

Particulars House – I House – II House – III
Actual Rent p.a. 24,000 18,000
Purpose of use of House Property LOP LOP SOP
Standard Rent 18,000 12,000 nil
Municipal Value 16,000 14,000 35,600
Municipal tax (10% of M.V) Municipal tax paid by Harish 1,600 700 3,560
Municipal tax paid by the tenant nil 700 nil
Repairs 1,000 500 2,000
Vacancy Period nil nil
Interest on loan for repairing house 800 600 2,000
Unrealized rent allowed in the year 2015-16 recovered during the year for the first house 4,000 nil nil

Compute the taxable Income from House property of Mr. Harish for the Assessment Year 2020-21.

Question 31.
Sri Ramappa owns four houses (House – 2 and 4 are self occupied for residence, House – 3 is ued for own business and House – 1 is let out) and furnishes the following information for the financial year – 2019-20.
Compute his income from House Property for the relevant A.Y.

Particulars House – 1 House – 2 House – 3 House – 4
Municipal valuation 49,000 28,000 87,000 90,000
Fair rent 42,000 25,000 80,000 1,05,000
Standard rent 38,200 15,000 75,000 90,000
Rent (if property is let out)
(throughout the previous year) 42,000
Unrealised rent 3,500
Municipal taxes:
– Paid by Ramappa 500 7,000 9,000
– Paid by tenant 5,000
Repairs 2,500 4,500 2,250 3,000
Land revenue to State Govt. 1,000 500 1,200 1,300
Education Cess to Govt. 250 200 300 350
Water & Health Cess to Municipality 500 100 400 800
Date of completion of construction 31-5-2015 31-5-2015 31-3-2015 1-4-2015

Property – 1 remained vacant for two months (March 16, 2017 to May 15, 2018). Mr. Ramappa borrows 50,000 75,000 and 1,00,000 for the construction of House – 1, House – 2 and House – 4 respectively on 15th June 2012 at the rate of 12% per annum. He, however-makes repayment of loan amount of’ 50,000,25,000 in respect of House – 1 and House – 2 respectively on December 31, 2016.

Question 32.
Mr. Prakash is the owner of following houses in Bangalore and the particulars of which are relating to previous year 2019-20.

Particulars House A House B House C
1) Municipal value 1,20,000 1,32,000 1,44,000
2) Fair rental value 1,50,000 1,60,000 1,75,000
3) Standard rent 1,44,000 1,50,000 1,60,000
4) Nature of use Let out for Residence Let out for Business Self occupied for Residence
5) Rent received (p.m.) 15,000 18,000
6) Municipal tax paid by owner:
(a) For the year 2018-19
(b) For the year 2019-20
6,000
12,000
6,600
13,200

14,400
7) Cost of repairs 18,000 12,000
8) Interest on loan for construction 45,000 60,000 2,25,000
9) Unrealised for the year 2019-20 12,000 18,000
10) Vacancy period (month) 2 2
11) Year of completion 2015 2014 2012

Compute the taxable income from House Property for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Income from Salary Short Answer Questions

Income from Salary Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give The meaning salary for various purposes.
Answer:
1) For Entertainment Allowance
Salary = Basic pay only.

2) For Gratuity under the Payment of Gratuity Act.
Salary = Basic Pay + Full D.A.

3) For Rent Free House
Salary = Basic + A (taxable allowances) + B (Bonus) + C (Commission of all types) + D (Dearness allowances, Which enters into benefits) + F (Fees) + L (Leave salary received during service period)

4) In Other Cases
Format for Computing Taxable Income from Salaries

Question 2.
Discuss basis of charges.
Answer:
Salary income is charged under the head “income from salaries” either on accrual basis or receipt basis, which ever is earlier. For the sake of easy understanding, the format for Computing Taxable Income from Salaries in given below:
Assessee : ……………….. A.Y.: ………………..
Residential Status : ……………….. P.Y. : ………………..
Category : ………………..

1. Basic Pay

2. Dearness pay

3. Bonus

4. Fees

5. Commission

6. Interim relief

7. Encashment of leave salary

8. Gratuity

9. Pension

10. Provident funds

11. Allowances

12. Perquisites

13. Profit in lieu of salary

Xxx

Xxx

Xxx

Xxx

Xxx

Xxx

Xxx

Xxx

Xxx

Xxx

Xxx

Xxx

xxx

Gross Salary

Deductions u/s 16

1. Entertainment allowance u/s 16(ii)

2. Professional tax paid u/s 16(iii)

Xxx
xx
xx
xxx
Net Salary or Income from Salary xxx

Note:
1. Any salary surrendered by the employee to the central government u/s(2) of voluntary surrender of salary act, 1961, is fully exempt from tax.

2. When an employee foregoes his/her salary to its employer, not under the surrender of salaries act, the salary so foregone shall be fully taxable.

3. When the employer bears the tax of employee, then the salary so paid is called as salary paid tax-free. As per section 17(2)(iv), any tax paid by employer on behalf of the employee is added to the salary income.

Question 3.
What are perquisites? Explain different types of perquisites with examples.
Answer:
Perquisites is any casual endowment, fee or profit attached to an office or position in addition to salary or wages.
The different types of perquisites are:
(i) Exempted perquisites: These perquisites are totally exempt from tax. The following are the exempted perquisites:

  • Free medical facilities
  • Free refreshments supplied during office hours.
  • Free meals given during office hours
  • Free recreational facilities provided by employers to its employees are fully exempted.
  • Goods sold by the employer to his employees at concessional rate.
  • Cost of refresher course attended by employee met by employers.
  • Any rent free residential accommodation to Judge of High Court or Supreme Court.
  • Free ration received by members of earned forces
  • Value of any gift up to ‘ 5000 in a year (gifts in cash are fully taxable) is fully exempted.
  • Perquisites allowed by govt to its employees posted abroad is fully exempted.
  • Rent free house given to an officer of parliament, a union minister and leaders of opposition in parliament is fully exempted.
  • Employees contribution to staff group scheme Is fully exempted.
  • Computers, laptops given to an employee for official or personal use are fully exempted.
  • Income tax on perquisites if paid by employees is fully exempted

(ii) Perquisites taxable in all cases:

  • Rent free accommodation
  • Concessional Rent House
  • Obligation of employee met by employer
  • Life insurance premium paid by employer on behalf of employee

(iii) Perquisites taxable in specified cases only.

  • Free motor car facility
  • Free transport
  • Free education
  • Free gas, light, water
  • Free servants
  • Any other bill for personal expenses of employee paid by employer is fully taxable

Question 4.
Explain different kinds of provident funds.
Answer:
The different kinds of provident funds are:
(i) Statutory Provident fund:
Statutory Provident fund is the oldest type of fund and it was started in the year 1925, through a Provident Fund Act of 1925. This fund was started with a view of providing savings amongst government employees. Generally this fund is maintained by government or semi government departments like Railways, RBI, college, universities etc. The employees contribution towards the employees statutory provident fund and the amount of interest earned on the accumulated balance is to be included in the income of employee. The employees over contribution will qualify for rebate u/s 88.

(ii) Recognized Provident fund:
It is a fund to which the Commissioner of Income Tax has given the recognition as required under the Income Tax Act. Generally this fund is maintained by industrial undertakings, business houses, banks etc. The employees contribution over and above 12% of employees salary, will be included in employees salary- income for tax purpose.

The employees contribution towards this fund will fully qualify for rebate under section 88. Interest on provident fund credit balance upto prescribed rate of 9.5% is exempted, but interest credited over and above such rate is deemed to be employees salary income of that previous year.

(iii) Unrecognised Provident Fund:
It is the provident fund which is not recognized by the Commissioner of Income Tax. The employer and the employees both contribute towards this fund. The employees contribution is added in the salary and he will not be allowed any rebate of tax while computing the total tax of the employee. The employee is entitled to relief under section 89(1).

Transferred Balance: When the unrecognized provident fund is recognized for the first time, the credit balance in the employees unrecognized provident fund is transferred to the recognized provident fund account. This balance is known as transferred balance. In such case, fund will be treated as RPF from the day of its inception and exception will be allowed in same manner.

(iv) Public Provident Fund:
On July 1, 1968 a new fund known as Public Provident Fund was started so that self employed people may also enjoy the benefits of rebate under section 88. Self employed people are doctors, lawyers, accountants, actors and traders. This fund can suit all types of pockets and its working is also very simple. Balances in the public provident fund are not liable to attachment by any court.

Practical Problems

Question 1.
Mrs. S. working in a company and getting a basic pay of’ 8,000 p.m. DA at 20% of basic pay, Commission at 5% of basic pay, HRA at 12% of basic pay and bonus equal to two months of basic pay. She is residing in a rented house at’ 1,800 p.m. Determine her exempted amount of HRA, for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 2.
Ms. Bhoomika resides in Kolkata. During the PY 2019-20 she get 12,0 p.a. as basic salary. She gets DA at 20% of basic salary (enters fro retirement benefits). She has also received a commission of 15,000 (calculated at 2% on turnover achieved by her). HRA received by her is 11,800 p.a. but rent paid is 14,800 p.a. Calculate the taxable HRA for the AY 2020-21. Dec 09

Question 3.
Mr. Madhavan of Chennai received 12,000 per month as basic pay and 2,000 per month as D.A (Forming part of salary for retirement benefits) He also received commission at fixed % of turnover achieved by him 40,000. Other allowances received by him are 2,800 per month. He is in receipt of HRA at 2,400 per month. But he has paid rent of 3,200 per month. He received advance salary for month of April and May 2019 in March 2020.
Compute the amount of HRA to be included in his salary income for P.Y. ending 31.3.2020.
Solution:
Salary

Basic pay = (12,000 x 12) 1,44,000
D.A. = (2,000 x 12) 24,000
Commission 40,000
Salary for HRA 2,08,000

(i) 10% of salary = 20,800
(ii) Actual rent paid (3,200 x 12) = 38,400
Computation of Taxable HRA

Question 4.
Mr. Praveen Kumar is the employee of Karnataka Government working in Hubli. He received the following emoluments for the financial year ending 31st March, 2020:
(i) Basic pay 8,000 p.m.
(ii) Dearness allowance – 20% of basic pay of which 40$ enters in to calculation of retirement benefit
(iii) Conveyance allowance 300 per month of which 2,000 was spent
(iv) House rent allowance 1,0 p.m.
(v) Mr. Praveen resided in a rented house on a monthly rent of 1,500 per month.
But he is allotted rent free quarter on 1st November 2016 from which date he is not entitled to get house rent allowance. Calculate the taxable house rent allowance for the assessment year 2020-21.

Question 5.
Mr. X is employed in Limited Co at Kanpur on salary of ‘ 8,000 per month and D.A. of 20% of Basic salary, 60% of D.A, is under the terms of employment i.e. it is included in salary for purpose of retirement benefits. He gets HRA from Co at 4,000 per month. His annual increment of’ 1,000 per month fall due on 1 Dec. 18. He also received arrears of Salary and D.A. of preceeding year amounting to 9,000 and 500 respectively.

Question 6.
Miss Roopashri, an employee of IT company Bangalore, submits the following information, compute the value of perquisite in respect of free Accommodation.
Answer:
Basic Salary 12,000 P.M., D.A. 40% of basic of which 80% enters into service benefits, Transport Allowance 1,250 P.M., Annual Bonus 25,000, Income Tax paid by the company on behalf the employee 750 P.M., Fair Rental value of accommodation 15,000 P.M., Rental charges of Furniture 18,500.

Question 7.
Sri Pramod an employee of PQR Ltd, draws 2,00,000 as basic salary, dearness allowance 15,000, bonus 20,000, education allowance to a son 300 per month. Besides company provides a rent-free unfurnished house in Chennai. Determine the taxable value of rent-free accommodation for the assessment year 2020-21 if the house is: a) owned by the company b) leased by the company on lease amount ‘ 20,000 per annum (as rent).
Solution:
(a) Value of rent free unfurnished house
(2,22,400 at 15%) 33,360
Here, salary = 2,00,000 + 20,000 + 2,400 = 2,22,400

(b) Lease of the following is the value of
Rent free house 33,360
OR
Rent paid by the company 20,000
Therefore, the value of rent free unfurnished house is 20,000

Question 8.
Mr. Suresh is an employee in a Bank at Bangalore, drawing a basic pay of 12,000 p.m. DA at 20% of basic pay, fixed medical allowance of ‘ 300 p.m. and special allowance of 250 p.m. He has been provided with rent free accommodation. The cost of furniture provided being 1,20,000.
Compute the taxable value of furnished accommodation for the A.Y.

Question 9.
Mr. Ramesh is an Non -Govt employee. He has been provided with a rent free house taken on lease for which the employer pays an annual rent of 40,000. He has also paid hire charges of ‘ 2,000 for rent and 1,000 for hire charges to the employer. Annual Salaries of the employee for the above purposes was 2,00,000.
Calculate value of rent free accommadation for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 10.
(A) From the following details calculate taxable HRA and income from salary, of Mr. RajeSh who is working and living at Mysore.
Basic salary P.A. – 78,000
Dearness allowance P.A. – 7,800
(Enters into retirment benefits)
House rent allowance P.a. – 11,700
Rent paid P.a. – 13,200
Entertainment allowance P.A. – 5,000
(B) From the following details calculate taxable gratuity of Mr. Prakash who retired in Septermber 2018 after having put in 38 years of service in the company. His average salary for 10 months proceeding Septermber 2018 is 50,000 P.M. He received the gratuity of ‘ 12,00,000 at the time of retirement. If
(a) Covered by the Act
(b) Not-covered by the Act.

Question 11.
Company has provided a residential accommodation to 13 empioyee. From the folio winginformation, findout the value of perquisite of accommodation.
Fair rental value of house annual 36,000 Salary 4,00,000
(i) House is situated in city whose population is more than 4 lakh.
(ii) House is situated in city whose population if less than 4 lakh.
Solution:
(i) If house is situated in city whose population is more than 4,00,000
Value of perquisite = 20% of salary
Value of perquisite= 4,00,000 x \(\frac {15}{100}\) = 60,000

(ii) If house in situated in city whose population is less than 4,00,000
∴ Value of perquisite = 15% of salary
∴ Value of perquisite= 4,00,000 x \(\frac {10}{100}\) = 40,000

Question 12.
Mr. Mahesh is getting a pension of 4,000 p.m. from a company. During the previous year 2018-19 he got his 2/3 pension commuted and received 2,46,000. Compute the exempted amount, if he has also received gratuity.
Solution:
Full pension = 2,46,000 x 3/2 = 3,69,000
If he receives gratuity
Exempted value of commuted pension = Full value x 1/3
Exempted amount = 3,69,000 x 1/3 = 1,23,000

Question 13.
Mr. Arun is getting a pension of 8,000 p.m from a company. During the previous year 2019-20 he got his 2/3 pension commuted and received 5,08,000. Calculate the total taxable pension, if he also receives gratuity.

Question 14.
Mr. Veeresh retired on 31.3.2020 after sewing in a company for 32 years and 10 months. He received ‘ 1,78,000 as gratuity. His average monthly salary in the immediately preceding 10 months was’ 28,000. Compute his taxable gratuity for the A.Y. 2020-21 (Gratuity is not covered under Gratuity Act).

Question 15.
Mr. Anand is getting a pension of 8,000 p.m., from a company. During the previous year 2019-20 he got his 2/3 pension commuted and received 4,92,000. Compute the exempted amount, if he has also received gratuity.
Solution:
Calculation of exempted amount, if Mr. Anand has also received gratuity
Full pension (4,92,000 x 3/2) 7,38,000
Therefore full pension is 7,38,000
If he has also received gratuity
Exempted value of commuted pension = Full value x 1/3
= 7,38,000 x 1/3 = 2,46,000
Therefore exempted amount = 2,46,000

Question 16.
Mr. Chandrashekar retires from LMN Ltd., on 30.06.2019. He gets pension of’ 2,000 p.m. upto 31.01.2019. With effect from 01.02.2019 he gets 60% of pension commuted for 40,800. Determine the taxable pension of Mr. Chandrashekar fro the AY 2020-21 assuming that he is also receiving gratuity.

Question 17.
Mr. Anand a non-governmentretired employee is getting a pension of 12,000 per month from a company.
During the previous year 2019-20 he got his half of pension commuted and received 5,00,000. Compute the exempted amount of commuted pension for the AY 2020-21 if:
(a) He receives gratuity
(b) He does not receive any gratuity

Question 18.
Mr. Sunder retired from services on 31st March 2020.
His pension was fixed at 6,000 p.m He commutes one-half of his pension amount received 3,00,000 Find out the taxable amount of commuted pension,
if:
(a) he is a Government employee.
(b) he is a Non-Govt, employee who also gets gratuity, and
(c) he is a Non-Govt, employee who does not get any gratuity.

Question 19.
Mr. Harish a General manager in a private company in Bangalore, retired from his service on December 15, 2018 after 28 years and 8 months of service and receives 3,50,000 as death cum retirement gratuity. At the time of retirement his basic salary was 18,200 per month. He has received’ 1,000 per month as D.A., 80% of which form part of salary for the purpose of computation of retirement benefits and 6% commission on turnover achieved by him. Total turnover achieved by him for 10 months ended 30th November 2019 1,50,000.
Assume he is not covered under Gratuity Act. Compute his taxable gratuity for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 20.
Mr. Anand Shankar retired from service in Mysore Minerals Ltd., on 31st December 2017. In this company, he has put in 33 years and 9 months of service. On retirement, the company paid him a gratuity of 3,25,000.
His monthly salary at the time of retirement (since 1-10-2016) was 12,000, D.A. 3,000 and H.R.A. 2,000.
Find out the exempted amount of Gratuity if he is:
a) Covered under the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
b) Not covered under the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
(Note: Question rewritten with change of date, question no.3 of Nov-02)

Question 21.
Mr. Vinodh retired from services on 31.3,2020. His pension was fixed at 8,000 per month. He commutes 3/4th of his pension and received 7,20,000 in P.Y. 2019-20. Find out the taxable amount of commuted pension when
(i) He is government employee
(ii) He is non-government employee receives gratuity
(iii) He is non-government employee who doesn’t receives gratuity.
Solution:

Question 22.
Mr. Akram retires from a Private Company on June 30.
He is paid a pension of 7,500 p.m. He commutes 75% of pension on December 1st 2017 and receives 4,50,000 as commuted pension. Compute taxable amount of commuted and uncommuted pension for the assessment year 2020-21 assuming
(a) He has received a gratuity of’ 5,40,000 at the time of retirement
(b) He has not received any gratuity at the time of retirement.
Also state the tax benefit would have been enjoyed by the assessee in respect of commuted pension, if he were to be an employee of the Government of Karnataka.
Solution:
Computation of Taxable amount of computed and uncomputed
pension for the A. Y. 2020-21

Particulars
I. If he receives pension along with gratuity
1. Commuted value of pension received 4,50,000
Exemption 1/3 of total commuted value
(75% = 4,50,000, 100% = 6,00,000); (1/3 x 6,00,000)
Taxable value of commuted pension
4,50,000

 

2,00,000
2,50,000

II. If he does not receive gratuity along with pension:
1. Commuted value of pension received
Less: Exemption 1/2 of the pension (1/2 x 6,00,000)
Taxable value of commuted pension
Total Taxable Pension
 

4,50,000
3,00,000

1,50,000

If the assessee is an employee of the Government of Karnataka he is fully exempted in respect of commuted pension. Thus, he fully enjoys the tax benefits.
Note: Uncommuted pension is taxable in all cases.

Question 23.
Mr. Rajesh an employee of ABC Co. Ltd. Bangalore, retired on 31st
May 2019 after completing 28 years of service.
His monthly pension was fixed at 20,000. He commuted 60% of pension on 1st Jan. 2020 and received a sum of 5,40,000 as commuted pension. Calculate his taxable commuted and uncommuted pension for the assessment year 2020-21.

Question 24.
Mr. Srinidhi retires from service on 30.6.2019.
He is paid pension of 7,500 per month. He commutes 75% of his pension on 1.12.2019 and received 4,50,000 as commuted pension.
Compute the taxable amount of commuted pension for the assessment year 2020-2021.
(a) He is government employee
(b) He is non government employee who doesn’t receives gratuity
(c) He is non-government employee receives gratuity.

Question 25.
Mr. Ramesh retired from service on 31.01.2020.
His pension was fixed at 10,000 p.m. He commutes one-half of his pension and received 3,00,000. Find out the taxable commuted pension if:
a) he is a govt, employee
b) he is a non-govt, employee who also gets gratuity
c) he is a non-govt, employee who does not get gratuity

Question 26.
Mr. Kumar is a non-government employee getting pension of 16,0 per month from a company.
During the previous year 2019-20 he got his 2/3rd pension com muted and received 9,84,000.
Compute taxable pension for the Assessment Year 2020-21.

Question 27.
Briefly explain the tax treatment of leave encashment.
Answer:

Leave salary received during the service period. Leave Salary received at the time of retirement.
Govt.
Employee i.e.
(employees of state or central government)
Fully taxable
Non-Govt.
Employee
i.e.
(other
employees)
Fully taxable
Govt. employee

 

Fully tax free

Non-Govt employee
Least of the following is exempt from tax:
1. Leave encashment actually received. [Service period x actual earned leave – earned leave used x last drawn salary]
2. Leave salary as per I.T. law [1 month or actual earned leave, W.E.L x service period – earned leave used x average salary]
3. 10 months average salary
4. Maximum limit of 3,00,000

Question 28.
Sri Desikachar was manager in a company. He took premature retirement from service on 1.11.17. After completing 25 years of service his average salary for 10 month preceeding was retirement 3,690. He had 7 months leave to his credit on basis of 30 days per year which was approved and 23,100 as salary (at’ 3,300 per month) and 4,200 as D.A. (600 per month) D.A. forms the part of salary for retirement benefit. Compute the amount of encashment exempt from tax.

Question 29.
Mr. Monoharan was sales manager in a company.
He took voluntary retirement on 31st Dec. 2019. He joined this company on 1st January 1978. As per the terms of services, he was entitled to one month’s earned leave for every year of completed service. While service, he utilized 8 months earned leave and encashed another 8 months earned leave. On superannuation he received encashment amount’ 9,800. Compute the taxable part on encashment of earned leave for the assessment year 2020-21.
(Note: Question rewritten with change of date, question no.4 of April-02)

Question 30.
Mr. Keshava retired on 1.1.2020 after serving for 34 years and 9 months in loskar Ltd. From 1.1.2019 to 31.12.2019 his salary was 8,000 P.M. He was entitled for one and half months earned leave for every year of experience. Leave availed by him in service was 30 months. Leave salary received at the time of retirement was 1,68,000.
Compute the taxable amounted encasement of earned leave for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 31.
Sri Natesh was employed in a company.
He took voluntary retirement on 1st December 2018 after completing 25 years of service. On 1st January, 2018 his salary was ‘ 6,000 per month after adding the annual increment. In this company two months’ leave accrued every year. Compute the amount exempt regarding encashment of earned leave, if his other particulars were as under:

Question 32.
Mr. Nataraj is employed in a town (population 13 lakh). His particulars of income for the A.Y. 2020-21 are:
(i) Basic salary 8,000 per month
(ii) D.A. 2,000 per month (60% doesn’t enters Into service benefits)
(iii) Entertainment allowance ‘ 500 per month
(iv) Bonus ‘ 8,000 per annum.
(v) He has been provided with rent free accommodation, the cost of furniture provided being ‘ 20,000
Computer his taxable income from salary for the A.Y. 2020-21

Question 33.
Mr. Suresh is a govt, employee. His salary details for the P.Y. 2018-2019 are as follows:
(a) Salary at 5,500 p.m.
(b) DA at 2.000 p.m.
(c) CCA at 400 p.m.
(d) Entertainment allowance at 1,500 p.m.
Compute his net income from salary for the A.Y. 2020-21

Question 34.
From the following particulars, calculate the salary income of Mr. Rajan for the assessment year 2020-21.
Basic salary – 11,000 per month
House Rent Allowance – 4,800 per month
Dearness allowance – 5,000 per month
Entertainment allowance – 2,400 per month
Mr. Rajan and his employer contribute to Recognised Provident Fund 14% of salary.
One small car is allowed to him by his employer both for private and official use. Expenses of car are borned by the employer. He lives in a rented house monthly rent being 3,000 p.m. Mr. Rajan is working in Mysore.

Question 35.
Mr. Chethan is a production manager of a company in Chennai. His particulars of salary income are:
Basic salary 15,000 pm.
DA 5,000 pm (given under terms of employment)
Commission 12,000 pa on the turnover achieved
Bonus 4,000 pa
HRA 8,000 per month and
Travelling allowance 800 per month (fully spent for official purpose)
He lives in a rented house for which he pays 9,000 per month as rent
Find out his taxable salary income for the AY 2020-21.

Question 36.
Mr. X is working in a company of Hydrabad on a salary of 10,500 p.m.
And Dearness Allowance of 2,000 p.m. ana nalr df which is paid under terms of employment. He received 16,000 as bonus for the year 2020-21.
He is given a rent free unfurnished house owned by the company together with the facility of gardener on a monthly salary of 600. Company paid 5,000 during the year towards membership fee of a club for Mr. X.
During the year medical bills reimbursed by the company for treatment given in a nursing home to his mother 5,000.
He is contributing 15% of his salary to RPF and equal amount by the Co., and interest credited to this account during the previous year at 9.5% p.a. 10,000.
Compute his taxable income from salary of the assessment year 2020-21.
Solution:
Computation of Taxable salary for A.Y. 2020-21

Particulars
Basic Salary (10,500 x 12)
D.A. (2,000 x 12)
Bonus
Club membership fees
Reimbursement of medical bills
Employee’s contribution to RPF in excess of 12% of salary
(1,26,000+12,000 = 1,38,000 x 3/100)
Value of RFA (1,26,000+12,000+16,000) = 1,54,000 x 20/100)
Gross Salary
Less: Standard Deductions u/s 16(ia)
Income from Salary
1,26,000
24,000
16,000
5,000
5,000
4,140
30,800
2,10,940
50,000
1,60,940

Question 37.
Mr. Pratham Sales Manager of XYZ Ltd., Mumbai has furnished the following details of his income for the year ended 31.3.2019. Computer his income from salary for the A.Y. 2020-21
(a) Basic salary 20,000 p.m.
(b) Dearness allowance 6,000 p.m. (forming part of salary).
(c) Bonus equal to 3 months basic salary
(d) Entertainment allowance 2,500 p.m. (amount spent 12,000).
(e) Children hostel allowance for his three children 400 p.m. per child.
(f) Reimbursement of medical bills 7,000 for the treatment taken in a private nursing home
(g) He is provided with rent free furnished accommodation owned by the company. Cost of furniture 1,00,000, FRV of the house is 7,500 p.m.
(h) Free telephone at his residence 3,500.
(i) Medical insurance premium of Mr. Pratham paid by the company 4,000 p.a.
(j) Employment tax paid by the company 1,000 p.a.
(k) Own contribution and company’s contribution to RPF is 14% of salary. Interest credited to RPF at 14% 14,000

Question 38.
Mr. Akhii, an employee of ABC (P) Ltd., and receives the following salary and perquisites from his employer during the previous year 2019-2020. He holds 20% equity shares in the employer company.
(a) Basic pay – 96,000
(b) Profit Bonus – 4,500
(c) Commission on sales at 2% of turnover (turnover achieved by Mr. Akhii for the year 2019-2020 is 4,50,000)
(d) Advance salary of April, May and June 2018 – 24,000
(e) Employer’s contribution towards RPF – 13,220
(f) Interest credited in provident fund account at 14.5% is 8,700
(g) Rent free furnished house in Mumbai is provided by employer. Employer also pays hiring charge of furniture 23,500 and rent paid for house 1,00,000
(h) Free services of gardener – salary 6,000
(i) Free services of cook – salary 7,200
(j) Free supply of ration paid by employer – 4,500
(k) Mr. Akhil also took an interest free loan of 75,000 from his employer payable after three years. The loan is taken on 1st Nov. 2017 to finance the purchase of jewellery for his wife.
Compute Mr. Akhil’s taxable salary for the assessment year 2020- 2021. (Note: Question rewritten with change of date, question no.8 of Aprll-04)

Question 39.
Mr. X, a physically handicapped person working in ABC Company Ltd.
Bangalore had furnished the following details of his income for the year 2019-20. Compute his income from salary for the A.Y. 2020-21.
(a) Basic salary 40,000 p.m.
(b) Dearness allowance enters into retirement benefits 24,000 p.m.
(c) Fixed percentage of commission on sales 1,500 p.m.
(d) Bonus 65,000
(e) HRA 12,500 p.m (Rent paid 10,600 p.m.)
(f) Transport allowance 4,000 p.m.
(g) Reimbursement of medical expenses 2,500 for treatment taken in private hospital
(h) Management contribution and own contribution to RPF is 15% of salary.
(i) Interest credited to RPF is 11,000 at 11% p.a.
(j) Professional tax paid by employee is 400 p.m.
(k) He is provided with more than 1.6 liter capacity car by the company for official use. All the expenses including salary of the driver are met by the company.
(l) Children education allowance’ 600 p.m. per child for two children and children hostel allowance 1,000 p.m. for two children.

Question 40.
Mr. X is an employee in HMR Bangalore. He gives the following information for the previous year 2019-20.
(1) Basic salary 10,000 p.m.
(2) DA 6,000 p.m.
(3) Family allowance 600 p.m.
(4) City compensatory allowance 800 p.m.
(5) Education allowance for two children at 350 p.m. per child
(6) Entertainment allowance 750 p.m.
(7) House rent allowance 1,600 p.m. But he pays 3,000 p.m. as actual rent.
(8) Company has provided a telephone at his residence by meeting all the expenses amounting to 6,000 for the year.
(9) Company has paid his income tax of 6,420 during the previous year on his taxable income.
(10) Conveyance allowance of 8,000 for visiting the branches (fully spent).
(11) He and company contribute 14% of salary towards RPF.
(12) Interest on RPF was 15,000 at 15% p.a.
Compute income from salary for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 41.
Mr. Kiran is working in a private company in Bangalore. From the following details of his salary compute the income from salary for the A.Y. 2020-2021.
(a) Net basic salary 74,000. After deduction of tax at source of 8,000 in the year.
(b) D.A. 800 per month (not forming part of salary).
(c) Bonus equal to 3 months basic salary.
(d) House Rent allowances 800 per month, but he is paying rent of 1,200 per month for his residence in Bangalore.
(e) His son is studying in a residential school in Mysore and company paying education allowance of 4,000 and hostel allowances 4,000 yearly.
(f) He is contributing to RPF at 15% of salary and the company contributing an equal amount.
(g) Interest earned on RPF 4,200 at 14% p.a.
(h) Conveyance allowance 8,500 of which he spent 5,500 for official purpose.
(i) He is the member of Lions Club an annual membership fees 2,000 paid by company.
(j) Kiran has a telephone in his residence for personal and official use and its bill 5,000 paid by the company.
(k) He paid 510 professional tax.

Question 42.
Mrs. Rama is an employee of State Bank of Mysore; She furnishes the follow in information for computation of her taxable salary for the Assessment Year 2020-21.
(i) Basic Salary 12,500-500-18,000. p.m. from 1-1-2014
(ii) Dearness Allowance @ 15% of salary.
(iii) Entertainment Allowance, 250/- p.m., Bonus 4,000/-, Children Education Allowance for her three children 200/- p.m.per child and Travelling Allowance for tour’ 15,000/- (during the year she spent 14,000/- on these travels).
(iv) She and her family members took medical treatment in a private hospital during the year. The bank reimbursed 15,000/- regarding these expenditures.
(v) The bank has provided her an accommodation by deducting 1,000/- p.m from her salary, but the bank is paying a rent of 5,000/- p.m.to the owner of this house. Furniture costing 30,000 is also provided in this house by the bank.
(vi) Employee and employer contributed 15% of her salary and D.A. towards the SPF. The interest credited to the P.F.A/C is 3,300/- @ 10% during the year.
(vii) During the year the bank has paid her Employment Tax of’ 2,000 Income Tax of 8,000/-, and Health Insurance Premium of 1,500

Question 43.
Mr. Vikas is an employee of HCL Ltd. he supplies you the following particulars of his income.
(a) Basic salary 20,000 p.m.
(b) Dearness allowance 5,000 p.m. (50% enters into salary)
(c) Fixed medical allowance 1,000 p.m.
(d) Education allowance 500 p.m. per child for his three children
(e) Transport allowance 1,200 p.m.
(f) City compensation allowance (CCA) 100 p.m.
(g) employers contribution to RPF at 15% of salary
(h) Interest credited to RPF at 9.5% p.a. is 28,000
(i) He is provided with free lunch in office. The cost per meal is 50
(j) the employer has given him the use of a small car which he uses for both personal and official purposes. He meets the expenses for personal purpose from out of his pocket.
(k) He was also provided with rent free house at Bangalore for which the employer paid a rent of 9,000 p.m. He was allowed the use of furniture costing 28,000 respectively.
(l) Life insurance premium of 12,000 was paid by employer on an insurance policy of 2,40,000. Compute his taxable salary for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 44.
The following particulars relates to the income of Mr. Ganesh for the P.Y. 2019-20.
He is employed in a Cotton Textile Mill at Bangalore on a monthly salary of 25,000.
He is also entitled to a commission at 1% on sales effected by him.
The sales effected by him during the previous year amounted to 40,00,000.
He received the following during the previous year:
(a) Dearness pay 6,000 p.m.
(b) Bonus at two months basic salary
(c) Entertainment allowance 2,000 p.m.
(d) House rent allowance 5,000 p.m.
(e) Income tax of Mr. Ganesh paid by employer 10,000
(f) Free telephone installed at his residence 6,000
(g) He and his employer contribute 15% of his salary to his RPF and interest credited to RPF at 10% amounted to 30,000 during the year.
(h) He paid 6,000 p.m. as rent of the house occupied by him. Compute his income from salary for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 45.
Smt. Savita, an employee of Hindustan lever Ltd. Delhi received the following incomes during the year ending 31-03-2020.
(a) Basic Salary upto 31-08-2019 12,000 p.m. and there afterwards 12,500 p.m.
(b) Dearness pay 30,000 P.a.
(c) Dearness allowance 15,000 p.a. (it does not enter into retirement benefits)
(d) Children education allowance 250 p.m. for one child.
(e) Reimbursement of medical expenses 21,500 (Treatment was taken in private hospital)
(f) Smt. Savita has been provided with rent free flat at Delhi (Rent paid by the Company 80,000 p.a.)
(g) Facility of watchman and cook provided, each of whom is paid 700 p.m. as salary.
(h) Interest free loan for purchasing home appliances 1,20,000 (Date of loan borrowed 1-4-2019 and assume SBI lending rate for similar loan on 1-4-2019 @12% p.a.).
Determine salary income of Smt. Savita for the Assessment Year 2020-21 assuming that she paid ‘ 200 p.m. as professional tax.

Question 46.
Smt. Rekha, an employee of RKS Ltd., Delhi receives the following incomes during the year ending 31.03.2020.
Basic salary upto 31.08.2019 12,000 per month and thereafter at 12,500 per month. Leave travel concession 4,500 (entire amount spend). Dearness pay 30,000; dearness allowance 15,000 (it does not enter for retirement benefits); children education allowance 250 per month for 1 child. Reimbursement of medical expenses 31,500 (private hospital)
Smt Rekha has been provided with rent free flat at Delhi (rent paid by the company 80,000 per annum), facility of a watchman and a cook (each of whom is paid a salary of 700 per month), interest free loan for purchasing home appliances 1,20,000 (date of loan borrowed 01.04.18 and SBI lending rate for similar loan on 01.04.19 is 12% p.a.).
Determine Smt. Rekha’s salary income for the AY 2020-21 assuming that she has paid 200 per month as professional tax.

Question 47.
The following particulars’ are related to the income of Sri Ganesh for the previous year 2019-20.
Sri Ganesh is employed in a software company at electronic city Bangalore on a monthly salary of 30,000. He is also entitled to a commission at 0. 5% of sales effected by him. The sale effected by him during the previous year amounted to 80,00,000. He received the following allowances and perquisites during the previous year:
(i) Dearness pay at 6,000 per month
(ii) Bonus at two months basic salary.
(iii) Entertainment allowance at 2,000 per month
(iv) House rent allowance at 5,000 per month
(v) The employer paid 10,000 towards the income tax-liability of Sri Ganesh
(vi) The employer provided him LTC of 20,000 for going to Simla.
(vii) He has also been provided with gas, electricity and water facility and employer spent 10,000 on these facilities.
(viii) The employer gave him a personal computer at free of cost. The written down value of this personal computer on 1.4.2018 was 10,000.
(ix) He and his employer both contributed 15% of his salary to his recognised provident fund and interest credited to this fund at 10% per annum interest amounted to 30,000 during the P.Y.
(x) He spent 6,000 per month as rent of the house occupied by him in Bangalore.
Compute his taxable salary income for the assessment year 2020-21.
Solution:
Calculation of salary income of Sri Ganesh for the assessment year 2020-21

Particulars Amount
(i) Salary
(ii) Dearness pay
(iii) Bonus
(iv) Commission
(v) Entertainment allowance
(vi) House rent allowance
(vii) Income tax paid by the company
(viii) Gas, electricity and water facility
(ix) Employer’s contribution to RPF
(x) Interest on RPF Gross salary income
Less: Standard deduction U/s 16(ia)
Net salary income
3,60,000
72,000
60,000
40,000
24,000
35,200
10,000
10,000
14,160
1,500
6,26,860
50,000
5,75,860

Question 48.
Mr. Prabhakar is an employee of NSK Ltd. Bengaluru. Particulars of his income for the PY 2019-20 are as follows:
Basic salary 13,500 p.m.
DA 35% of basic salary (60% of it forms part of salary for retirement benefits).
HRA 4,000 per month (rent paid 5,000 per month)
Children education allowance 50 per month per child for 3 children. Helper allowance 300 per month (Actual amount spent 200 per month) Bonus 25,000. Leave encashment 13,500.
Advance salary of April 2020 14,000. Entertainment allowance 250 per month.
Mr. Prabhakr has been provided with free use of a small car for both official and personal use. During the year the company reimbursed 19,200 towards medical expenses incurred by him.
His contribution to RPF is 14% of salary and the company also makes a matching contribution. Interest credited by the company on the accumulated balance of RPF account at 12% p.a. amounts to 18,000.
Professional tax paid by him is 200 per month.
Compute Mr. Prabhakar’s salary income for the AY 2020-21.

Question 49.
Sri Yadunandan (age: 50 years), an employee director of Maruthi Udyog Ltd., submits the following information relevant for the assessment year 2019-20.
Salary 56,000, entertainment allowance 6,000, bonus 10,200, education allowance for a child 3,000, income tax penalty paid by the company 1,500, medical expenses reimbursed by the company for the treatment taken in private hospital 21,000, leave travel concession 1,3000 (first time in the current block period), free residential telephone provided by the company telephone bill paid by the company 1,2000, free refreshment during office hours 2,000, payment of electricity bills by the employer 1,000, reimbursement of gas bills by the company 1,900, furnished flat owned by the company at Cochin. (population;31 lakh) fair rent of the flat 40,800, salary of watchman 1,000. He is aiso provided with air condition which is obtained by the company on a rent of 2,000. Furniture costing 18,000 is also provided. He is provided with Maruti 800 CC car, which is used by him for both personal and official purposes and expenses are paid by the company. Company’s contribution towards recognised provident fund is 7,920, interest credited to it at 14% 14,000. Sri Yadunandana made the following payments during the financial year 2019-20.
(i) Own contribution to RPF at 14% of salary (ii) Professional tax 2,400 Calculate the net salary income of Sr Yadunandana for the assessment year 2020-21.

Question 50.
The following are the particulars of income from salary of Mr.Jayadev of Tumkur for the previous year ending 31.3.20
(a) Net salary (after deducting income fax, profession tax and contribution of Jayadev to his recognised provident fund) 66,000
(b) Income Tax deducted at source from Salary 13,000
(c) Profession tax deducted at source from Salary 2,000
(d) Jayadev’s contribution to provident fund 9,000
(e) Employer’s contribution tothe above fund 19,200
(f) Interest credited to provident fund at 121/2% P.A. was 2,500
(g) House rent allowance received (actual rent paid by him for the house occupied for his residence at 1,500 p.m.) 18,000
(h) Allowance for travelling on transfer received from employer 2,000
(j) Jayadev has paid life insurance premium on the following policies as under:
(a) On the policy of 20,000 on his own life 3,000
(b) On the policy of 20,000 on his wife life 2,000
Compute his income from salary for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 51.
Mr. Ganesh the manager of Marithi Suz following details of his income for the ltd., Mumbai, has furnished the ear ended 31st March 2020:
(i) Basic salary 21,000 per month
(ii) Bonus – 2 months basic salary
(iii) Commission is 3% on sales – during the year he reached a saies of 5,00,000
(iv) Dearness allowance forming part of salary 7,000 per month (Considered to retirement benefits)
(v) Medical allowance 1,400 per month
(vi) Entertainment allowance 3,00 per month
(vii) Childrens hostel allowance for his two children at 500 per month per chiid.
(viii) RPF – Company’s contribution 6,000 per month
(ix) RPF – own contribution 5,000 per month
(x) Interest on RPF at 11% p.a. 44,000
He has been provided rent free furnished accommodation at Mumbai whose fair rental value is 10,000 and cost of furniture 60,000. He paid professional tax of’ 2,400.
Compute his taxable salary for the assessment year 2019-2020.

Question 52.
Following are the particulars of salary of Mr. Kapoor
(a) Basic salary 35,000 per month
(b) Dearness allowances 50% of basic salary
(c) Entertainment allowances 10,000 per month (actual expenses 8,900 per month)
(d) Rent free furnished house is provided, which is owned by the company and its fair value 12,000 per month
(e) Furniture costing 2,50,000 is also provided.
(f) Services of the following servants (paid by company) are provided.
Watchman – 1,000 per month
Gardner – 750 per month
Sweeper – 800 per month
Cook – 600 per month
The company also provided free supply of gas, electricity and water worth 18,000 per annum. The company provides one large car (more than 1600 CC) with driver for both official and personal use expenses met by company. He paid employment tax 500 per month.
He works as MD of Royal Airways Ltd. Mumbai. Computer his net salary income for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 53.
Mrs. Smitha is working as Sales Executive in Maruthi Suzuki Ltd. Kolkata arid her salary details are as follows for the previous year 2019-20.
(a) Basic salary 21,000 per month
(b) Bonus equal to two months basic salary
(c) Commission 3% on sales (During the year she reached sales target of 5,00,000)
(d) Dearness allowance 7,000 per month. (Eligible for Retirement benefits)
(e) Medical allowance 1,400 per month (Medical Expenses 15,000 p.a.)
(f) Children Hostel Allowance for her two children at 500 per month per child.
(g) Children Education Allowance for her two children at 400 per month per child.
(h) RPF contribution by the company 6,000 per month.
(i) RPF contribution by employee 5,000 per month
(j) Interest credited on RPF at 11% 44,000
(k) She has been provided with company’s owned rent free furnished house in Mumbai and cost of furniture provided 60,000
(l) Mrs. Smitha paid her professional tax 2,400 p.a.
Compute Taxable Salary for the A.Y. 2020-21. Nov 2016

Question 54.
Mr. Yadav is an employee of State Bank of India Bangalore and he submits the following information relevant for the A.Y. 2020-21.
Compute his taxable income from Salary:
(a) Basic salary 8,000 per month
(b) Dearness allowance 1,500 per month (does not form part of salary)
(c) City compensatory allowance 300 p.m.
(d) Bonus 10,000 per annum.
(e) Conveyance allowance 2,000 p.m. (60% spent fro office duties)
(0 House Rent allowance 5,000 p.m. (Rent paid by employee 7,000 p.m.)
(g) Payment of LIC Premium by SBI 4,000 p.a.
(h) Services of sweeper paid by SBI 200 per month
(i) Leave Travel Concession 5,000 (First time in current Block period)
(j) Reimbursement of gas, electricity and water bill by the SBI 2,500 per annum.
(k) RPF contribution by the bank and own contribution of employee 14% of salary.
(l) Interest credited to RPF at 14% 14,000
(m) Professional tax paid by Yadav 5,000

Question 55.
Following are the particulars of salary of Mr. Gurumurthy.
(a) Basic salary 10,000 per month.
(b) Dearness allowances 50% of basic salary
(c) Entertainment allowances 20,000 per month (actual expenses 17,800 per month)
(d) Rent free furnished house is provided, which is owned by the company and its fair value 24,000 per month
(e) Furniture costing 5,00,000 is also provided
(f) Services of the following servants paid by company.
Watchman 2,000 per month
Gardener 1,500 per month
Sweeper 1,600 per month
Cook 1,200 per month
The company also provided free supply of gas, electricity and water worth 36,000 per annum. The company provides one large car (more than 1600 cc) with driver for both official and personal use expenses met by company. He paid employment tax 200 per month.
Compute his salary income for the A.Y. 2020-21.

Question 56.
Mr. Praveen is an employee of XYZ Ltd. at Bangalore. He furnishes the following information for the Assessment Year 2020-21.
(a) Basic salary 8,000 p.m.
(b) Dearness allowance 6,000 p.m. (‘ 1,000 enters into all retirement benefits)
(c) Educational allowance for 2 children at 350 p.m. per child.
(d) House Rent Allowance 1,600 p.m. but Actual Rent paid by him is 3,000 p.m.
(e) He and Company contributes 14% of salary towards RPF
(f) Interest on RPF was 15% P.a.
(g) Company paid 6,000 towards income tax and 3,000 towards professional tax of Mr. Praveen.
(h) He received bonus equals to 2 months salary.
(i) Children hostel allowance for 2 children @ 400 per child, per month.

Question 57.
From the following information calculate the income from salary of Mr. Anand for the A.Y. 2020-21.
(1) Basic salary 40,000 p.m.
(2) Dearness allowance 60% of basic forming part of salary
(3) Commission 18,000
(4) Bonus 60,000
(5) Employer and employee’s contribution to SPF is 15% of salary
(6) Interest credited to SPF is 12,000 at 10% p.a.
(7) CCA 500 p.m.
(8) Medical allowance 800 p.m.
(9) He is provided with a rent free furnished house by the employer for which his employer paid a rent of 5,000 p.m. to the owner of the house. Cost of furniture is 1,20,000.
(10) He is also provided with a car less than 1.6 litre capacity by the employer both for personal and official use. All the expenses of the car including salary of the driver are paid by the employer.
(11) Free telephone at his residence by the employer valued at 12,500
(12) Professional tax paid by him 450 p.m.
(13) Gift voucher worth 12,500 were issued by the employer.

Income from Salary Very Short Answer Type Questions

Income from Salary Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define salary.
Answer:
According to Sec. 17(1) ordinarily the word Salary is understood as periodical payment for services rendered. However, for the purpose of Section 15 and 16, it is defined U/s 17 as inclusive of the following items:

  • Wages
  • Any annuity or pension
  • Any gratuity
  • Any fees, commission, perquisites or profits in lieu of or in addition to any salary or wages.
  • Any advance of salary.

Question 2.
What is advance salary? How is it treated?
Answer:
In case an assessee receives salary in advance in a previous year, which was actually not due in that year, it shall be taxable in the year of receipt. On the other hand, if any loan is taken against of salary it is not treated as advance Salary.

Question 3.
What is salary for the purpose of calculating HRA?
Answer:
Salary for the purpose of calculating HRA means Basic Pay + Dearness Allowance (enters into service) + Commission based on percentage of on turnover achieved by assessee.

Question 4.
Give the meaning of salary for the purpose of calculating exempted earnedl leave salary.
Answer:
Salary = Basic salary + Dearness Pay + Dearness Allowances (Enters into service benefit) + Fixed percent of commission on turnover.

Question 5.
Give the meaning of salary for the purpose of calculating exempted RPF contribution by employer.
Answer:
Salary for the purpose of calculating exempted RPF contribution by employer:
Salary = Basic salary + Dearness allowances (Which enters into retirement benefits) + Commission (if employee is given commission at fixed percentage on sales achieved by him).

Question 6.
What is meant by an allowance?
Answer:
It is the amount received by an individual paid by his/her employer in addition to salary. Under section 15 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 these allowance are taxable excluding few condition where they are entitled of deduction/ exemptions.

Under Income Tax Act following types of allowance are defined:

  • House Rent Allowance
  • Entertainment Allowance
  • Other Special Allowances

Question 7.
What is the provision related to Hostel Allowance?
Answer:
Exempt up to 300 per month per child up to a maximum of two children only.

Question 8.
What is DA?
Answer:
Dearness allowance shall be considered only when it is part of salary for computing all retirement benefits such as pension, leave encashment, gratuity, etc. If dearness allowance is part of salary for computing only some of the retirement benefits, then it is not taken into consideration for this purpose.

Question 9.
Write any four special allowances exempted up to certain limit.
Answer:
The four special allowances exempted upto certain limit are:

  • Travelling allowance
  • Daily allowance
  • Children education allowance
  • Tribal area allowance

Question 10.
What are the deducations allowed U/s 16(2) Entertainment allowance?
Answer:
The assessee can claim certain deductions on under Section 16 (ii). This deduction shall be admissible only to Central or State Government employees. The deduction shall be allowed in the following manner. Least of following shall be allowed as deduction:

  • Statutory limit of 5,000 or
  • 1/2 Basic Salary or
  • Actual amount of Entertainment Allowance received.

Question 11.
What is bonus?
Answer:
Bonus is taxable in the year of receipt, if it has not been taxed earlier on due basis. If bonus is received in arrears, the assessee can claim relief u/ s 89(1) of the income tax act.

Question 12.
Give the meaning of fees.
Answer:
Fees is paid by employer for extra work done by employee. It is fully taxable.

Question 13.
Give the meaning of commission.
Answer:
Commission is paid as a percentage on profit/sales. It is fully taxable.

Question 14.
Define perquisite. OR Define perquisites under sec. 17 and give any two examples.
Answer:
Perquisites refers to any benefits attached to an office or position in addition to Salary, Wages, Free telephone, Free refreshment during working hours, Cost of refresher course, Free ration to employees of armed forces, Free conveyance facilities.

Question 15.
What are taxable perquisites?
Answer:
Perquisites taxable in case of ail category of employees are:

  • Rent-Free accommodation.
  • Concessional Rent accommodation.
  • Gifts given by employer exceeding 5,000.
  • Interest free loan exceeding 20,000

Question 16.
Mention any four tax free perquisites.
Answer:
The four tax free perquisites are:

  • Expenses on telephone including mobile phone
  • Rent free house and conveyance facility provided to high court and Supreme Court judges
  • Residential accommodation provided at site
  • Employees contribution to staff group insurance scheme.

Question 17.
What do you mean by provident of fund?
Answer:
A provident fund is a form of social safety net into which workers must contribute a portion of their salaries and employers must contribute on behalf of their workers. The money in the fund is then paid out to retirees, or in some cases to the disabled who cannot work.

Question 18.
State the types of provident fund.
Answer:
The types of provident fund are:

  • Statutory Provident Fund(SPF)
  • Recognized Provident Fund (RPF)
  • Unrecognized Provident Fund(URPF)
  • Public provident fund(PPF)

Question 19.
How is RPF treated in income tax?
Answer:
Any contribution made by employer to recognised Provident Fund is exempted up to 12% of employee’s salary and Interest credited to RPF balance is exempted up to 9.5% p.a.

Question 20.
How is URPF treated in income tax?
Answer:
The employers contribution and interest credited to URPF is not taxed. But at the time of converting URPF to recognized provident fund, the transferred balance is taxed. Employee contribution to URPF is not eligible for deduction U/s 80C.

Question 21.
How is the refund from un-recognised provident fund treated under Income Tax Act?
Answer:
Rent obtain after deducting the expenses incurred by the owner of the building towards certain amenities provided to the tenants, such as lift maintenance, staircase lighting, garden maintenance, etc. from actual rent receivable.

Question 22.
What are profits in lieu of salary?
Answer:
Any payment received or due in addition to the salary or wages from the employer is called profit in lieu of salary.

Question 23.
What do you mean by gratuity?
Answer:
Gratuity is a lump sum payment made to the employees based on the duration of their total service. The gratuity benefit is payable on cessation of employment (either by resignation, death, retirement or termination, etc) by taking the last drawn salary as the basis for the calculation.

Question 24.
Give the meaning of pension.
Answer:
A pension is essentially compensation received by the employee after he/ she has retired. Post-retirement benefits that an employee might receive from some employers

Question 25.
Distinguish between pension and gratuity.
Answer:
Pension is the monthly income received on monthly basis after the retirement and it is fuliy taxable. Where as Gratuity is the amount received at the time of retirement. It is fully exempted in case of Govt, employees and in case of Non-Govt, employees it is partly taxable.

Question 26.
State the salary for the purpose of computation of taxable value of rent-free accommodation.
Answer:
Meaning of salary for valuation of rent free house includes: Basic Salary, Dearness allowance (If it forms a part of salary), Taxable portion of allowance, Fees, Bonus & commission, leave salary received during the service period.

Question 27.
State how the ‘Leave Travel Concession’ is exempted.
Answer:
LTC received by an employee is exempt to the extent of the least of the following:
(A) LTC granted by the employer, Expenses incurred by an employee, Amount determined as per the IT law.

Question 28.
Mention the deduction Under Sec. 16.
Answer:

  • 16(ii) Entertainment allowance.
  • 16(iii) Professional tax.

Question 29.
What do you mean by Transferred Balance?
Answer:
If URPF is recognized by the CIT for the first time, the balance standing to the credit of the employee in the URPF account will be transferred to his RPF account. The account so transferred is known as transferred balance.

Question 30.
How do you treat professional tax paid by employer on behalf of employees?
Answer:
If employer pays on behalf of employee then it should be treated as income and claimed deduction U/S 16.

Question 31.
Give the meaning of fringe benefits.
Answer:
Fringe benefits means any consideration for employment provided by way of any privilege, service, facility or amenity, directly or indirectly by an employer to his employees. For example: Car facility, Transport facility, Traveling/Touring, Free lunch, gift, club/ credit card facility, Free holiday home facility.